CBSE Class 9 Science Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) & Answers

CBSE Class 9 Science Multiple Choice Questions(MCQs) & Answers CBSE Class 9 Science QUESTIONS

CBSE Class 9 Science Multiple Choice Questions(MCQs)& Answers

1 Which of the following waves do not require any kind of medium to propagate?
A Light waves
B Water surface waves
C Sound
D Earthquake waves

Answer: Light waves
2 The number of oscillations completed in one second is called _________.
A frequency
B wavelength
C time period
D velocity

Answer: frequency
3 In which of the following, speed of the sound is maximum:
A steel
B kerosene
C air
D water

Answer: steel
4 Solar radiations heat up:
A Land faster than the water bodies
B Equally both land and water bodies
C Land slower than the water bodies
D Neither land nor water bodies

Answer: Land faster than the water bodies
5 In which sphere of the environment Ozone layer is located?
A Thermosphere
B Troposphere
C Stratosphere
D Mesosphere

Answer: Stratosphere
6 Which trophic level is considered to be the most vulnerable to extinction?
A tertiary consumer level
B secondary consumer level
C producer level
D primary consumer level

Answer: tertiary consumer level
7 Which of the following organisms is incorrectly paired with its trophic level?
A zooplankton – primary producer
B eagle – tertiary consumer
C cyanobacteria – primary producer
D honey bee – primary consumer

Answer: zooplankton – primary producer
8 Which of the following is a nonrenewable energy source?
A wind energy
B natural gas
C solar energy
D tidal energy

Answer: natural gas
9 ______ is a process in which solids go directly into gaseous state without going through the liquid state.
A Sublimation
B Boiling
C Evaporation
D Melting

Answer: Sublimation
10 The phase or state of matter can change when the ______ of the substance changes.
A amount
B mass
C temperature
D weight

Answer: temperature
11 During summer, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool because of the phenomenon of
A evaporation
B osmosis
C diffusion
D transpiration

Answer: evaporation
12 Solids are usually ______ since their particles are closely packed together.
A soft
B spongy
C compressible
D hard

Answer: hard
13 Which one of the following sets of phenomena would increase on raising the temperature?
A Evaporation, diffusion, expansion of gases
B Evaporation, solubility, diffusion, compression of gases
C Diffusion, evaporation, compression of gases
D Evaporation, compression of gases, solubility

Answer: Evaporation, diffusion, expansion of gases
14 ______ is the ratio of mass of a substance to its volume.
A Density
B Elasticity
C Viscosity
D Fluidity

Answer: Density
15 The space inside a container that is occupied by matter is its ______.
A volume
B shape
C density
D mass

Answer: volume
16 ______ is a physical quantity which expresses the amount of matter in a body.
A Mass
B Density
C Volume
D Temperature

Answer: Mass
17 Apiculture deals with
A Bee Keeping
B Rearing Silk Moths
C Rearing Pigs
D Rearing Cows and Buffaloes

Answer: Bee Keeping
18 Which of the following is not a type of biotic stress?
A frost
B nematodes
C diseases
D insect

Answer: frost
19 One newton is the force ____________
A which gives a 1 kg body an acceleration of 1m/s2
B which gives a 1 g body an acceleration of 1 cm/s2
C of gravity on a 1 kg body
D of gravity on a 1 g body

Answer: which gives a 1 kg body an acceleration of 1m/s2
20 When a bus starts suddenly from rest, the passengers sitting inside the bus move backwards. This illustrates an example of
A Newtons Third Law of Motion
B Newton First Law of Motion
C Newton Second Law of Motion
D None of these

Answer: Newton First Law of Motion
21 Acceleration acts always in the direction __________
A of the net force
B of the final velocity
C of the displacement
D of the initial velocity

Answer: of the net force
22 The acceleration produced in a body by an acting force of given magnitude depends upon _____.
A mass of the body
B shape of the body
C size of the body
D all of these

Answer: mass of the body
23 A ball is moving in a circle at fixed speed. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
A There is no acceleration present.
B There must be only one force acting on it.
C Acceleration is present but has constant magnitude.
D Acceleration is present and acts tangent to the circle.

Answer: Acceleration is present but has constant magnitude.
24 Action and reaction act on
A same body and in same direction
B different bodies but in opposite directions
C same body but in opposite directions
D different bodies but in same direction

Answer: different bodies but in opposite directions
25 The relative density ___________
A is unitless
B has unit of kg/m2
C has unit of kg/m3
D has unit of g/cm3

Answer: is unitless
26 The time of ascent when measured from the point of projection of a body projected upwards, the
A Time of ascent = Time of descent
B Time of ascent < Time of descent
C Time of ascent > Time of descent
D All of these

Answer: Time of ascent = Time of descent
27 Weight of an object on the surface of the moon is
A 1/6 that on the surface of the earth
B ½ that on the surface of the earth
C 1/5 th that on the surface of the earth
D 1/3 that on the surface of the earth

Answer: 1/6 that on the surface of the earth
28 As per the statement given in Q.9 above, What change it will take place for the potential energy of the car
A It will remain the same
B It will increase
C It will decrease
D It will becomes 3 times the Intial P.E.

Answer: It will remain the same
29 A car with mass ‘M’ is moving on horizontal road with velocity ‘v’. Driver applies accelerator and increases it speed 3 times to ‘3v’. The final K.E. acquired by the car will be :
A 4.5 Mv2
B 3.5 Mv2
C 1.5 Mv2
D 2.5 Mv2

Answer: 4.5 Mv2
30 An external force is being applied on an object at some angle and it causes the object either to be pulled or pushed on a rough surface. Which of the following holds true ?
A It is easier to push the object
B It is easier to pull the object
C It requires same efforts to push or pull the object
D None of the above

Answer: It is easier to pull the object
31 The value of 1 Kilo Watt Hour is
A 1.8 X 105J
B 3.6 X 106J
C 7.2 X 1010J
D None of these

Answer: 3.6 X 106J
32 A runner, while moving, is facing a wind from the opposite direction. The work done by the wind on runner will be
A Zero
B Negative
C Positive
D Infinity

Answer: Negative
33 The commercial unit of energy consumption in households, industries and commercial establishments is
A Joule
B Watt
C kW
D KW h (kilowatt hour)

Answer: KW h (kilowatt hour)
34 Which of the following does not have unit as Joule?
A Force
B Potential energy
C Work done
D Kinetic energy

Answer: Force
35 A soldier makes a swing jump between two points, by holding one end of a rope, other end of which is tied to some higher point. Work done by rope in jumping of soldier from one point to another is an example of :
A Zero work done
B Negative work
C Positive work
D None of the above

Answer: Zero work done
36 In winters, rubbing of hands together for some time, causes a sensation of warmth mainly because of
A heat caused by the force of friction
B heat caused by the momentum
C heat caused by the motion
D heat flows from the blood to skin

Answer: heat caused by the force of friction
37 A dog weighing 25 kg, while chasing a cat, jumps over a fence of height 1.6 m. What is the potential energy of dog at the top of fence ? (Take gravity due to earth ‘g’=10 m s-2 )
A 160 Joules
B 320 Joules
C 380 Joules
D 480 Joules

Answer: 380 Joules
38 Two objects A and B are moving with same momentum. Mass of object ‘B’ is greater then mass of object ‘A’. Which of the two object will have higher kinetic energy?
A Object A
B Object B
C Both the objects will have same Kinetic Energy
D Object with greater mass will have higher kinetic energy

Answer: Object A
39 A solid has
A definite shape and volume
B definite shape but no definite volume
C definite volume and no definite shape
D no definite volume no definite shape

Answer: definite shape and volume
40 Which of the following is NOT a property of particles of a matter?
A The particles of matter are extremely small
B The particles of matter have spaces between them.
C The particles of matter are in stationery state.
D The particles of matter attract each other.

Answer: The particles of matter are in stationery state.
41 A gas has
A definite volume and no definite shape
B no definite volume no definite shape
C definite shape and volume
D definite shape but no definite volume

Answer: no definite volume no definite shape
42 A liquid has
A definite volume and no definite shape
B definite shape and volume
C no definite volume no definite shape
D definite shape but no definite volume

Answer: definite volume and no definite shape
43 Which of the following has minimum spaces among the particles?
A Solids
B Liquids
C Gases
D None of these

Answer: Solids
44 During summer, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool because of the phenomenon of
A evaporation
B osmosis
C diffusion
D transpiration

Answer: evaporation
45 The rate of evaporation decreases with
A increase in humidity
B increase of temperature
C increase in wind speed
D increase of surface area

Answer: increase in humidity
46 A change of state directly from solid to gas without changing into liquid state (or vice versa) is called
A Sublimation
B Diffusion
C Evalopartion
D Condensation

Answer: Sublimation
47 Evaporation always causes
A Cooling down
B Liquification
C thermal expansion
D all of these

Answer: Cooling down
48 The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in M shell is:
A 18
B 19
C 5
D 7

Answer: 18
49 Which one of the following will have the maximum charge/mass ratio?
A ?-particle
B neutron
C proton
D electron

Answer: electron
50 The number of electrons in the outermost shell in the atom of an inert element is
A 8
B 2
C 0
D 1

Answer: 8
51 The electronic configuration of an atom is 2,8,3. The number of valence electrons in the atom is
A 3
B 8
C 10
D 13

Answer: 3
52 If Z represents the atomic number and A represents mass number, then the number of neutrons in an atom can be computed as
A A – Z
B Z – A
C A + Z
D Z

Answer: A – Z
53 Protium, Deutrium and Tritium are isotopes of ____________.
A Hydrogen
B Helium
C Rhodium
D Sodium

Answer: Hydrogen
54 In hydro electricity generation, water stored in a dam possesses:
A potential energy
B thermal energy
C electrical energy
D chemical energy

Answer: potential energy
55 When a body falls freely towards the earth then the total energy
A remains constant
B increases
C decreases
D first increases and then decreases

Answer: remains constant
56 Expression for Power of an object is equal to:
A Power = Work done/Time
B Power = Force X Displacement
C Power = Work done X Time
D Power = Time/ Work done

Answer: Power = Work done/Time
57 When we stretch a rubber band, the Elastic Potential Energy of rubber band
A remains unchanged
B becomes zero
C increases
D decreases

Answer: increases
58 DPT vaccines are administered to develop immunity against
A Pertussis
B Diptheria
C Tetanaus
D All of these

Answer: All of these
59 Microbes which enter the body through nose most likely affect
A lungs
B brain
C liver
D heart

Answer: lungs
60 Ascaris worm lives in which part of human body?
A large intestine
B small intestine
C kidneys
D liver

Answer: small intestine
61 Elephantiasis disease can have
A long term affect on our health
B sometimes bad effect on our health
C short-term affect on our health
D no effect on our health

Answer: long term affect on our health
62 Which one of the following is an infectious disease?
A cancer
B diabetes
C diptheria
D hypertension

Answer: diptheria
63 Diseases which are always present in certain location are called?
A epidemic diseases
B chronic diseases
C endemic diseases
D acute diseases

Answer: epidemic diseases
64 An ?-particle is _____________
A an electron
B a Hydrogen nucleus
C a Helium nucleus
D a proton

Answer: a Helium nucleus
65 ?-particles are ___________
A negative charged particles
B positive charged particles
C beam of neutrons
D gamma radiation

Answer: negative charged particles
66 Canal rays are _______________
A positive charged particles
B gamma radiation
C negative charged particles
D beam of neutrons

Answer: positive charged particles
67 Proton was discovered by:
A J.J. Thomson
B Rutherford
C Goldstein
D Chadwick

Answer: Goldstein
68 Which cell organelle plays a crucial role in detoxifying many poisons and drugs?
A Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
B Vacuoles
C Golgi Apparatus
D Lysosomes

Answer: Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
69 Which of the following organelle is present onion cells but not in human cheek cells?
A plasma membrane
B cell wall
C cytoplasm
D nucleus

Answer: cell wall
70 Plastids which are responsible for giving colors to fruits and flowers are
A chromoplasts
B protoplasts
C chloroplasts
D leucoplasts

Answer: chromoplasts
71 Which organelle is considered as a suicide bag?
A Chromosome
B Lysosomes
C Centrosome
D Mesosomes

Answer: Lysosomes
72 Chromosomes are made up of nucleic acid and _________
A Calcium
B Phosphorus
C Protein
D Sugar

Answer: Protein
73 Which organelle is the power house of the cells?
A Mitochondria
B Nucleus
C Plastids
D Golgi

Answer: Mitochondria
74 Function of centriole is
A cell division initiation
B nucleolus formationation
C cell wall formation
D formation of spindle fibre

Answer: formation of spindle fibre
75 The main constituent of cell-wall is:
A cellulose
B protein
C Starch
D none of these

Answer: cellulose
76 Who used the word ‘protoplasm first time for living cells?
A Robert Brown
B Purkinje
C Robert Hooke
D Leeuwenhoek

Answer: Purkinje
77 Which of the following can be made into crystal?
A A virus
B A sperm
C A bacterium
D An Amoeba

Answer: A virus
78 Who discovered the first living cell?
A Leeuwenhoek
B Purkinje
C Robert Hooke
D None

Answer: Leeuwenhoek
79 Mitochondria are found
A only in plant cells
B in eukaryote cells only
C in all type of living cells
D only in animal cells

Answer: in eukaryote cells only
80 Muscles contain special proteins called ________ that help in muscle movement.
A nucleo proteins (DNA, RNA)
B contractile proteins (actin and myosin)
C recptor proteins
D enzymes

Answer: contractile proteins (actin and myosin)
81 A body is projected up with an initial velocity u m/s. It goes up to a height h metres in t seconds time. Then it comes back at the point of projection. Considering negligible air resistance, which of the following statement is true?
A the displacement is zero
B the average velocity is 2h/t
C the acceleration is zero
D the final velocity is 2u when body reaches projection point.

Answer: the displacement is zero
82 When an object is released freely from certain height without applying any external force, then the object
A will move upwards with constant velocity
B will move upwards with accelerated motion
C will move downwards with constant velocity
D will move downwards with accelerated motion

Answer: will move downwards with accelerated motion
83 The value of acceleration due to gravity at the poles
A Same as at the equator
B Is more than at the equator
C Is less than at the equator
D zero

Answer: Is more than at the equator
84 The mass of an object __________
A remains constant
B is in the direction of gravitational force.
C varies at different locations
D can be measured using spring balance

Answer: remains constant
85 An object moving in (upward) direction opposite to the gravitational force of earth performs _________
A retarded motion
B oscillations
C accelerated motion
D motion with constant velocity

Answer: retarded motion
86 The value of acceleration due to gravity of the surface of the earth is
A 8 m/s2
B 9.8 m/s2
C 2 m/s2
D None of these

Answer: 9.8 m/s2
87 The gravitational force between two bodies is
A always repulsive
B always attractive
C can be attactive or repulsive
D neutral

Answer: always attractive
88 When echo is heard ?
A If the time interval between original sound and reflected sound is more than 1/10s.
B If the time interval between original sound and reflected sound is less 1/10s.
C If the tme interval between original sound and reflected sound is less than 1/120s.
D If the time interval between original sound and reflected sound is 1/120s

Answer: If the time interval between original sound and reflected sound is more than 1/10s.
89 Sound wave of which of the following frequency is an ultrasonics sound?
A 30,000 Hz
B 3000 Hz
C 30 Hz
D 300 Hz

Answer: 30,000 Hz
90 Which of the following will have maximum mass?
A 0.1 mole of NH3
B 1022 atoms of Carbon
C 1022 molecules of CO2
D 1 gm of Fe

Answer: 0.1 mole of NH3
91 Which of the following is not correctly matched?
A Copper – Co
B Gold – Au
C Calcium – Ca
D Silver – Ag

Answer: Copper – Co
92 A sample of ammonia molecule irrespective of source, contains 82.35% of Nitrogen and 17.65% of Hydrogen by mass. This data supports:
A Law of Definite Proportions
B Avagadro’s Law
C Law of Conservation of Mass
D Las of Multiple Proportions

Answer: Law of Definite Proportions
93 The percentage of Hydrogen in H2O molecule is
A 11.11
B 88.89
C 5.55
D 44.45

Answer: 11.11
94 Formula for Aluminium Oxide is:
A Al2O3
B Al3O2
C AlO
D none of these

Answer: Al2O3
95 1 u or 1 amu means
A Mass of Hydrogen molecule
B Mass of C-12 atom
C 1/12th mass of C-12 atoms
D Mass of O-16 atom

Answer: 1/12th mass of C-12 atoms
96 The number of moles for 52g of He is: (Atomic Mass of He: 4u)
A 6.022 × 1023
B 13
C 52
D 1

Answer: 13
97 The number value 6.022 × 1023 is also called
A Avagadro’s number
B Mass Number
C Dalton Number
D Atomic Number

Answer: Avagadro’s number
98 Who introduced the term ‘mole’ in chemistry?
A Wilhelm Ostwald
B A Lavosier
C John Dalton
D Amedeo Avagadro

Answer: Wilhelm Ostwald
99 Bone is an example of _____________
A Connective tissues
B Nervous tissues
C Epithelial tissues
D Muscular tissues

Answer: Connective tissues
100 Cells of the tissue have dense cytoplasm, thin cellulose walls and prominent vacuoles. Identify the tissue.
A Collenchyma
B Scelerenchyma
C Meristem
D Parenchyma

Answer: Collenchyma