Evolution NEET Questions and Answers with FREE Pdf Download

Evolution NEET questions is the most important part of NEET exam 2021 as it contains total 25 marks and carry good weightage. Here we have discussed evolution NEET question which gives you a complete idea about type of questions that will be asked in evolution NEET exam. So just prepare evolution NEET questions and make sure you qualify NEET exam in your 1st attempt.

1. Which of the following leads to evolution?

(A) Separation of species leading to evolution

(B) Differentiation of species

(C) Loss of few advanced characters

(D) Differentiation and adaption of species as unique entities

Answer: Differentiation and adaption of species as unique entities

2. Which of the following is an example of genetic variation?

(A) Two children have different eye colors.

(B) One person is older than another.

(C) One person has a scar, but her friend does not.

(D) Tod eats meat, but his brother Rod is a vegetarian.

Answer: Two children have different eye colors.

3. Which of the following is an example of environmental variation?

(A) Apu is a tongue roller, but his brother Sanjay is not.

(B) Marge dyes her hair blue.

(C) Homer inherited baldness from his father’s side of the family.

(D) Patti and Selma have hanging ear lobes.

Answer: Marge dyes her hair blue.

4. What’s the difference between natural selection and sexual selection?

(A) Sexual selection occurs during sex.

(B) Natural selection is a type of sexual selection.

(C) Sexual selection is a type of natural selection.

(D) Sexual selection occurs within demes, natural selection does not.

Answer: Sexual selection is a type of natural selection.

5. What’s the difference between genetic drift and change due to natural selection?

(A) Genetic drift does not require the presence of variation.

(B) Genetic drift does not involve competition between members of a species.

(C) Genetic drift never occurs in nature, natural selection does.

(D) There is no difference.

Answer: Genetic drift does not involve competition between members of a species.

6. According to our reading, how did George Cuvier account for extinctions in nature?

(A) Extinctions never occur–there are unexplored parts of the globe where organisms that appear to have gone extinct may still live.

(B) Extinctions occur when the slow adaptation of organisms over time to their environment is not quick enough to help them respond to changing conditions.

(C) Extinctions occur at random, they do not reflect God’s will.

(D) Extinctions are due to catastrophic events.

Answer: Extinctions are due to catastrophic events.

7. Why, according to our reading, did Darwin take so long to publish the Origin of Species?

(A) Darwin wanted to share his theory as quickly as possible once he returned from his voyage on the Beagle.

(B) It took twenty years for Darwin to develop a theory.

(C) Darwin suffered from a number of illnesses.

(D) Darwin was concerned about the reaction of others to the implications of his theory.

Answer: Darwin was concerned about the reaction of others to the implications of his theory.

8. In which of the following ways is natural selection not analogous to artificial selection?

(A) With natural selection “picking” is due to the fit of an organism with its environment; whereas in artificial selection, the breeder “picks” which organisms will breed.

(B) Natural selection depends upon the presence of variation, artificial selection does not.

(C) Natural selection occurs within populations, artificial selection does not.

(D) There is a limit to how much change can be brought about by natural selection, no such limit exists for artificial selection.

Answer: With natural selection “picking” is due to the fit of an organism with its environment; whereas in artificial selection, the breeder “picks” which organisms will breed.

9. Why is the advent of reproductive isolation important from an evolutionary standpoint?

(A) When the organisms comprising two populations of a species can no longer interbreed, the flow of genetic material between them stops.

(B) It is not important from an evolutionary standpoint. The question is based on a false assumption.

(C) Reproductive isolation increases the mutation rate.

(D) Reproductive isolation may slow reproduction.

Answer: When the organisms comprising two populations of a species can no longer interbreed, the flow of genetic material between them stops.

10. If the theory of natural selection is the survival of the fitness, and the fittest are identified as those who survive, why isn’t it regarded as a tautology (a statement that is true only because of the meaning of the terms)?

(A) The effect of traits on the fitness of an organism can be assessed independently of whether the organism indeed survives.

(B) It is regarded as a tautology – the question is based on a false assumption.

(C) There may be some statements in science that are useful even if they are not falsifiable or refutable in principle.

(D) All of the above

Answer: There may be some statements in science that are useful even if they are not falsifiable or refutable in principle.

11. …….. was a predecessor of Darwin and he developed the theory of acquired characteristics.

(A) Weismann

(B) Mendel

(C) Malthus

(D) Lamarck

Answer: Lamarck

12. Which of these is not a living fossil?

(A) Archaeopteryx

(B) Duck-billed platypus

(C) Lungfish

(D) Frog

Answer: Archaeopteryx

13. Which of the following are not the examples of analogous structures?

(A) Wings of bat and butterfly.

(B) Wings of bat and forelimb of cattle.

(C) Thorn and spine.

(D) Tendril of Lathyrus and tendril of Gloriossa.

Answer: Wings of bat and forelimb of cattle.

14. The scientist who cut off the tails of mice of successive generations to prove Lamarck’s theory was wrong was

(A) Weismann

(B) Haeckel

(C) Darwin

(D) Wallace

Answer: Weismann

15. Human being belongs to the species of

(A) Homo erectus

(B) Homo habillis

(C) Homo sapiens

(D) Hominidae

Answer: Homo sapiens

16. Links between organisms that show branching pattern of evolutionary relationships are shown by

(A) living fossils

(B) comparative embryology

(C) phylogenetic trees

(D) two fossil layers

Answer: phylogenetic trees

17. Speciation is the evolutionary process by which

(A) a new gene pool is formed

(B) evolutionary paths of species converge

(C) hybrid species formed

(D) Shows up differences in physical traits

Answer: a new gene pool is formed

18. Evidences of evolutionary relationships is found in

(A) atmosphere

(B) fossils

(C) ocean beds

(D) rocks

Answer: fossils

19. Which of the following is not a source of variation in a population?

(A) Inherited genetic differences

(B) Differences due to health

(C) Differences due to age

(D) None of the above

Answer: None of the above

20. Which of the following examples of variation is not important from an evolutionary standpoint?

(A) Genetic differences between individual organisms comprising the population

(B) Inherited differences between individual organisms comprising the population

(C) Differences due to diet, health, age or accident that have no affect on an individual’s ability to survive and reproduce

(D) A and B

Answer: Differences due to diet, health, age or accident that have no affect on an individual’s ability to survive and reproduce

21. The variation natural selection operates on is due to random mutations. What does this imply about natural selection?

(A) Natural selection is also a random process.

(B) Natural selection is nevertheless a directed process- the likelihood one variant will be favored in a given environment over another is predictable, even if the origin is not.

(C) There is no possibility God could be involved in this process.

(D) A, B and C.

Answer: Natural selection is nevertheless a directed process- the likelihood one variant will be favored in a given environment over another is predictable, even if the origin is not.

22. How was Mendel’s work ultimately reconciled with Darwin’s theory of natural selection during the evolutionary synthesis in the 1930s and 1940s?

(A) Scientists recognized that once one thinks about species as populations, rather than individuals, there is no incompatibility between them.

(B) Mendel’s theory was replaced by the mutation theory.

(C) It was recognized much of the variation we observe in nature is due to recombination, rather than mutation.

(D) A and C

Answer: A and C

23. Which of the following is the evidence for Darwin’s theory of common descent?

(A) There are patterns in the fossil record that suggest other species have diverged from a single ancestor species.

(B) There are biogeographic patterns in the distribution of species, for instance distinct bird species on an island tend to resemble one another, suggesting a common ancestor.

(C) There are common stages in the early embryological development of organisms representing several distinct vertebrate groups.

(D) All of above

Answer: All of above

24. What is the relationship between the wing of a bird and the wing of a bat?

(A) They are homologous because they represent modified forms of a trait present in a common ancestor (forelimbs).

(B) They are analogous because while each carries out the same function (flight), this trait has arisen independently as a result of convergence (i.e. the common ancestor of both did not have a forelimb that allowed it to fly).

(C) A and B.

(D) They represent derived homologies.

Answer: A and B.

25. Which of the following is not an example of a macro evolutionary process?

(A) One lion species splits to form two lion species over geological time.

(B) The same trait evolves independently in two different taxa (e.g. wings in birds and in insects).

(C) As a result of their activities, humans drive Dodos (a bird species) extinct.

(D) Over a short period of time, the frequency of a single gene declines from 10 to 8%.

Answer: Over a short period of time, the frequency of a single gene declines from 10 to 8%.

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26. Which of the following is an example of an ancestral homology?

(A) Almost all modern reptiles, birds and mammals have forelimbs, a trait they also share with contemporary amphibians.

(B) The first birds and all their descendant species have feathers, a trait that is unknown in any other group.

(C) Humans and many insect species have eyes.

(D) All of the above.

Answer: Almost all modern reptiles, birds and mammals have forelimbs, a trait they also share with contemporary amphibians.

27. Which of the following is not an example of micro evolutionary change?

(A) The dark form of many moth species has increased in areas darkened by pollution.

(B) Penicillin resistant forms of bacteria have arisen since the introduction of antibiotics.

(C) The proportion of left and right bending moths in cichlid fish remains roughly 50:50.

(D) The last American eagle dies off, leading to the extinction of the species.

Answer: The last American eagle dies off, leading to the extinction of the species.

28. Which of the following are difficult to explain in terms of natural selection?

(A) Male peacocks evolve tail feathers that would appear to make them more rather than less vulnerable to predators.

(B) Male deer evolve antlers that are not used to defend themselves against predators.

(C) A bird issues a warning cry that puts it at greater risk of being noticed by a predator.

(D) Some traits appear to have no adaptive value.

Answer: Some traits appear to have no adaptive value.

29. Which of the following is not an example of a monophyletic taxon?

(A) The first fish species and every living organism that looks like a fish

(B) The first mammal species and all its descendants

(C) The first bird species and all its descendants

(D) All of the above

Answer: The first fish species and every living organism that looks like a fish

30. Which of the following are kingdoms?

(A) Monera

(B) Protista

(C) Animalae

(D) All of the above

Answer: All of the above

31. Which of the following must increase over geological time according to evolutionary biologists?

(A) Size

(B) Complexity

(C) Speed of evolutionary processes such as mutation

(D) All of the above

Answer: All of the above

32. Why is similarity misleading when it comes to inferring evolutionary relationships?

(A) Organisms that look alike may be very distantly related to one another

(B) Similarities between two species may be due to common descent, without indicating how closely the two are related to one another

(C) A and B only

(D) The presence of a shared derived character state is often misleading when it comes to inferring relationships between species

Answer: A and B only

33. Which of the following are the most distantly related to one another?

(A) Sunfish and dolphins

(B) Tree frogs and snakes

(C) Vampire bats and birds

(D) Bears and whales

Answer: Sunfish and dolphins

34. How does an evolutionary biologist explain why a species of birds has evolved a larger beak size?

(A) Large beak size occurred as a result of mutation in each member of the population

(B) The ancestors of this bird species encountered a tree with larger than average sized seeds. They needed to develop larger beaks in order to eat the larger seeds, and over time, they adapted to meet this need

(C) Some members of the ancestral population had larger beaks than others. If larger beak size was advantageous, they would be more likely to survive and reproduce. As such, large beaked birds increased in frequency relative to small beaked birds

(D) The ancestors of this bird species encountered a tree with larger than average sized seeds. They discovered that by stretching their beaks, the beaks would get longer, and this increase was passed on to their offspring. Over time, the bird beaks became larger

Answer: Some members of the ancestral population had larger beaks than others. If larger beak size was advantageous, they would be more likely to survive and reproduce. As such, large beaked birds increased in frequency relative to small beaked birds

35. How might an evolutionary biologist explain why a species of species of salamander becomes blind after colonizing a cave?

(A) It is possible that in the cave there is a source of pollution that increases the mutation rate for a gene that makes salamanders blind. Over time, due to exposure to this chemical, the members of the population lose their sight.

(B) Members of the ancestral population that colonized the cave differed in their ability to see. If maintaining the ability to see in the cave was a waste of energy, blind salamanders might actually have more offspring than those who could see.

(C) There is no way to explain this in terms of natural selection.

(D) The members of this salamander species no longer needed to use their eyes. Over time, due to lack of use, they lost the ability to see.

Answer: Members of the ancestral population that colonized the cave differed in their ability to see. If maintaining the ability to see in the cave was a waste of energy, blind salamanders might actually have more offspring than those who could see.

36. Which of the following is the most fit in an evolutionary sense?

(A) A lion who is successful at capturing prey but has no cubs.

(B) A lion who has many cubs, eight of which live to adulthood.

(C) A lion who overcomes a disease and lives to have three cubs.

(D) A lion who cares for his cubs, two of who live to adulthood.

Answer: A lion who has many cubs, eight of which live to adulthood.

37. How is extinction represented in a tree diagram?

(A) A branch splits

(B) A branch ends

(C) A branch shifts along the X axis

(D) None

Answer: A branch ends

38. A biologist is trying to infer how five closely related species of snakes are related to one another. She notices that some of the snakes have forked tongues and others do not. Which of the following would help her distinguish the ancestral state?

(A) She looks among snake fossils for evidence that being forked is a characteristic of the ancestor of this group, but determines no such fossils exist.

(B) She locates a specimen of a more distantly related snake to see if it has a forked tongue.

(C) She looks at a representative mammal species to see if it has a forked tongue.

(D) She flips a coin.

Answer: She locates a specimen of a more distantly related snake to see if it has a forked tongue.

39. The surface temperature of the sun is

(A) 6000o C

(B) 9000o C

(C) 1000o C

(D) 10000o C

Answer: 6000o C

40. The earth like other planets formed from

(A) aggregates of uranium

(B) cloud of gas and dust

(C) division of pre-exiting planets

(D) collisions of meteorites

Answer: cloud of gas and dust

41. The utilization of elements and compounds in nature generation theory because

(A) life cycles

(B) cyclic pathway

(C) material cycles

(D) recycling

Answer: material cycles

42. What is ethnobotany?

(A) Relationship between primitive plants and people

(B) Study to soil

(C) Cultivation of flower yielding plants

(D) Use of plants and their parts

Answer: Relationship between primitive plants and people

43. The first photoautotroph organisms were

(A) bryophytes

(B) algae

(C) cyanobacteria

(D) bacteria

Answer: bacteria

44. Who performed this famous experiment to prove origin of life ?

(A) Oparin and Haldane

(B) Spallanzani and Pasteur

(C) Urey and Miller

(D) Fox and Pasteur

Answer: Urey and Miller

45. How much temperature was used for the gases to react ?

(A) 10o C

(B) 130o C

(C) 1000o C

(D) 50oC

Answer: 130o C

46. What was the resultant found in place marked E ?

(A) Glucose, fatty acids and lipids

(B) Some fatty acids and organic acids

(C) Some amino acids as glycine and alanine

(D) Organic esters only

Answer: Some amino acids as glycine and alanine

47. A. The first molecules formed for replicating cells were most probably RNA.
R. This was proved by origin of ribozyme in 1987 by T. Cech in Tetrahymena.

(A) If A and R both are true and R is correct explanation of A

(B) If A and R both are true but R is not correct explanation of A

(C) If A is true and R is wrong

(D) If A is wrong and R is true

Answer: If A and R both are true and R is correct explanation of A

48. A. The first molecules formed for replicating cells were most probably RNA.
R. This was proved by origin of ribozyme in 1987 by T. Cech in Tetrahymena.

(A) If A and R both are true and R is correct explanation of A

(B) If A and R both are true but R is not correct explanation of A

(C) If A is true and R is wrong

(D) If A is wrong and R is true

Answer: If A and R both are true and R is correct explanation of A

49. The earliest organisms were

(A) heterotrophic and anaerobic

(B) autotrophic and anaerobic

(C) heterotrophic and aerobic

(D) autotrophic and aerobic

Answer: heterotrophic and anaerobic

50. Which one of the following is present today but was absent about 3.5 billion years ago?

(A) Oxygen

(B) Nitrogen

(C) Hydrogen

(D) Methane

Answer: Oxygen

51. In which condition gene ratio remains constant in a species?

(A) gene flow

(B) mutation

(C) random mating

(D) sexual selection

Answer: random mating

52. Lamarck theory of organic evolution is usually known as

(A) Natural selection

(B) Inheritance of acquired characters

(C) Descent with change

(D) continuity of fermplasm

Answer: Inheritance of acquired characters

53. Which one is used for knowing whether or not a population is evolving?

(A) Degree of evolution

(B) Genetic drift

(C) Proportion between acquired variations

(D) Hardy Weinberg equation

Answer: Hardy Weinberg equation

54. Balancing selection is concerned with successful reproduction of

(A) Homozygous recessives

(B) homozygous indivduals

(C) heterozygous individuals

(D) None

Answer: heterozygous individuals

55. Alternative forms of a gene are called

(A) loci

(B) multiples

(C) Chromosomes

(D) Alleles

Answer: Alleles

56. Heredity or inheritance of specific traits became clearer due to

(A) Lamarck’s theory

(B) Mendel worked on garden peas

(C) Darwinism

(D) Neo-Darwinism

Answer: Mendel worked on garden peas

57. Which of the following sentences is true about the evolutionary process?

(A) There is no real ‘progress’ in the idea of evolution.

(B) humans are unique, a totally new type of organism.

(C) progress is nature’s religion.

(D) Evolution of life forms was rapid in the beginning ages.

Answer: There is no real ‘progress’ in the idea of evolution.

58. Microevolution takes place due to

(A) somatogenic variation

(B) blastogenic variation

(C) continuous variation

(D) Successive variation

Answer: blastogenic variation

59. The difference between Homo sapiens and the Homo erectus was

(A) Homo sapiens originated in Africa while Homo erectus was in Asia

(B) Homo erectus were much smaller in size than homo sapiens.

(C) Homo erectus stayed in Africa while Homo sapiens did not.

(D) The size of their brain of Homo eructus was smaller to homo sapiens

Answer: The size of their brain of Homo eructus was smaller to homo sapiens

60. By studying analogous structures we look for

(A) similarities in appearance and function but different in structure.

(B) similarities in appearance but differences in functions.

(C) Similarities in organ structure.

(D) Similarities in cell make up.

Answer: similarities in appearance and function but different in structure.

61. Coacervates were experimentally produced by ………….

(A) Sydney Fox and Oparin

(B) Fischer and Huxley

(C) Jacob and Monod

(D) Urey and Miller

Answer: Urey and Miller

62. According to abiogenesis life originate from

(A) non-living matter

(B) pre-exiting life

(C) chemicals

(D) extra-terrestrial matter

Answer: non-living matter

63. Mega – evolution is

(A) Changes in the gene pool

(B) evolution due to mutations

(C) origin of a new biological group

(D) the evolution that takes centuries

Answer: origin of a new biological group

64. Evolutionary convergence is characterised by

(A) development of dissimilar characteristics in closely related groups

(B) development of a common set of characteristics in the groups of different ancestry

(C) development of characteristics by random mating

(D) replacement of common characteristics in different groups

Answer: replacement of common characteristics in different groups

65. Parallelism is

(A) adaptive divergence

(B) adaptive convergence

(C) adaptive convergence of far off species

(D) adaptive convergence of closely related groups dinosaurs

Answer: adaptive convergence of closely related groups dinosaurs

66. Serial homology is exhibited by

(A) Organs of same individual occupying different levels of the body

(B) Organs of different organisms with same function

(C) Appendages of various parts of prawn body

(D) Both (A) and (C)

Answer: Both (A) and (C)

67. Vermiform appendix in man, nictitating membrane and wisdom teeth are

(A) homologous organs

(B) analogous organs

(C) vestigial organs

(D) none of the above

Answer: vestigial organs

68. Which one of the following terms would most correctly describe the relationship between the flight organs of animals like locust, bat, swallow, and flying fish ?

(A) Atavism

(B) Analogous

(C) Homologous

(D) Vestigeal

Answer: Analogous

69. Appearance of facial hair in some people is an example of

(A) mongolism

(B) analogous organs

(C) atavism

(D) all above

Answer: atavism

70. A living connecting link which provides evidence for organic evolution is

(A) Archeopteryx between reptiles and mammals

(B) Lung fish between pisces and reptiles

(C) Duck billed platypus between reptiles and mammals

(D) Sphenodon between reptiles and birds

Answer: Duck billed platypus between reptiles and mammals

Evolution NEET Questions and Answers with FREE Pdf Download