Water Resources Engineering MCQs with FREE PDF

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Water Resources Engineering MCQ

1. In India, which of the following is adopted as standard recording raingauge?

a) Symon’s raingauge

b) tipping bucket type

c) natural syphon type

d) weighing bucket type

Answer: natural syphon type

2. The maximum average depth due to one day storm over an area of 100 km2 is 100 mm. Depth-Area-Duration (DAD) curves indicate that for the same area of 100 km2 the maximum average depth for a 3 hour storm will be

a) 100 mm

b) more than 100 mm

c) less than 100 mm

d) none of the above

Answer: more than 100 mm

3. The maximum rainfall depth of 300 mm in 24 hours has a return period of 100 years. The probability of 24 hours rainfall equal to or greater than 300 mm occurring at least once in 10 years is given by

a) (0.99)10

b) 1 – (0.99)10

c) (0.9)’00

d) l-(0.9)100

Answer: 1 – (0.99)10

4. The most suitable chemical which can be applied to the water surface for reducing evaporation is

a) methyl alcohol

b) ethyl alcohol

c) cetyl alcohol

d) butyl alcohol

Answer: cetyl alcohol

5. The stream which does not have any base flow contribution is called

a) perennial stream

b) intermittent stream

c) ephemeral stream

d) none of the above

Answer: ephemeral stream

6. The flow-mass curve is graphical representation of

a) cumulative discharge and time

b) discharge and percentage probability of flow being equaled or exceeded

c) cumulative discharge, volume and time in chronological order

d) discharge and time in chronological order

Answer: cumulative discharge, volume and time in chronological order

7. In nature water may occur as

A. liquid

B. solid

C. vapours

D. all the above

Answer: all the above

8. Water is useful for

A. running hydroelectric turbines

B. floating the boats and ships

C. providing steam for running locomotives

D. all the above

Answer: all the above

9. hydrology is the science which deals with

A. rain water

B. river water

C. sea water

D. surface and underground water

Answer: surface and underground water

10. The water utilizable by plants is available in soils mainly in the form of

a) gravity water

b) capillary water

c) hydroscopic water

d) chemical water

Answer: capillary water

11. The amount of irrigation water required to meet the evapotranspiration needs of the crop during its full growth is called

a) effective rainfall

b) consumptive use

c) consumptive irrigation requirement

d) net irrigation requirement

Answer: consumptive irrigation requirement

12. With the increase in the quantity of water supplied, the yield of most crops

a) increases continuously

b) decreases continuously

c) increases upto a certain limit and then becomes constant

d) increases upto a certain limit and then decreases

Answer: increases upto a certain limit and then decreases

13. Hydrograph is the graphical representation of

a) runoff and time

b) surface runoff and time

c) ground waterflow and time

d) rainfall and time

Answer: runoff and time

14. Infiltration rate is always

a) more than the infiltration capacity

b) less than the infiltration capacity

c) equal to or less than the infiltration capacity

d) equal to or more than the infiltration capacity

Answer: equal to or less than the infiltration capacity

15. The depth of water required to bring the soil moisture content of a given soil upto its field capacity is called

a) hygroscopic water

b) equivalent moisture

c) soil moisture deficiency

d) pellicular water

Answer: soil moisture deficiency

16. Infiltration capacity

a) is a constant factor

b) changes with time

c) changes with location

d) changes with both time and location

Answer: changes with both time and location

17. Infiltration is the

a) movement of water through the soil

b) absorption of water by soil surface

c) both (a) and (b)

d) none of the above

Answer: movement of water through the soil

18. If the intensity of rainfall is more than the infiltration capacity of soil, then the infiltration rate will be

a) equal to rate of rainfall

b) equal to infiltration capacity

c) more than rate of rainfall

d) more than infiltration capacity

Answer: equal to infiltration capacity

19. Cyclonic precipitation is caused by lifting of an air mass due to

a) pressure difference

b) temperature difference

c) natural topographical barriers

d) all of the above

Answer: pressure difference

20. Which of the following is a non-recording raingauge?

a) tipping bucket type raingauge

b) Simon’s raingauge

c) Steven’s weighing type raingauge

d) floating type raingauge

Answer: Simon’s raingauge

21. A raingauge should preferably be fixed

a) near the building

b) under the tree

c) in an open space

d) in a closed space

Answer: in an open space

22. Which of the following types of rain gauges is used for measuring rain in remote hilly inaccessible areas?

a) tipping bucket type

b) weighing type

c) floating type

d) Simon’s raingauge

Answer: tipping bucket type

23. Rate of evaporation from a water surface increases if

i) difference of vapour pressure between water and air is increased

ii) velocity of wind is decreased

iii) concentration of soluble solids in water is decreased The correct answer is

a) (i) and (ii)

b) (i) and (iii)

c) (ii) and (iii)

d) (i). (ii) and (iii)

Answer: (i) and (iii)

24. A 70% index of wetness means

a) rain excess of 30%

b) rain deficiency of 30%

c) rain deficiency of 70%

d) none of the above

Answer: rain deficiency of 30%

25. Under the same conditions, which of the following shapes of water surface will give the highest rate of evaporation?

a) flat water surface

b) convex water surface

c) concave water surface

d) independent of shape of water surface

Answer: convex water surface

26. Assertion A: To estimate the rainfall over a catchment, the number of raingauges required per unit area is large for hilly areas.

Reason R: Rainfall gradient is steep. Select your correct answer according to the coding system given below:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

c) A is true but R is false

d) A is false but R is true

Answer: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

27. When surface of transpiration is submerged under water, then potential evapotranspiration is

a) much more than evapotranspiration

b) much less than evapotranspiration

c) equal to evapotranspiration

d) equal to or less than evapotranspi-ration

Answer: much more than evapotranspiration

28. Unit of runoff in M.K.S. system is

a) cubic metre/sec

b) metre/sec

c) cubic metre

d) square metre

Answer: cubic metre/sec

29. The runoff increases with

a) increase in intensity of rain

b) increase in infiltration capacity

c) increase in permeability of soil

d) all of the above

Answer: increase in intensity of rain

30. The area between the isohyets 45 cm and 55 cm is 100 square km and between 55 cm and 65 cm is 150 square km. The average depth of annua! precipitation over the above basin of 250 square km will be

a) 50 cm

b) 55 cm

c) 56 cm

d) 60 cm

Answer: 56 cm

31. A current meter is used to measure the

a) velocity of flow of water

b) depth of flow of water

c) discharge

d) none of the above

Answer: velocity of flow of water

32. If it rains between 2 P.M. and 3 P.M. and the entire basin area just starts contributing water at 3 P.M. to the outlet, then time of concentration will be

a) 15 minutes

b) 20 minutes

c) 30 minutes

d) 60 minutes

Answer: 60 minutes

33. The rainfall on five successive days were measured as 100 mm, 80 mm, 60 mm, 40 mm and 20 mm respectively. If the infiltration index or the storm loss rate for the catchment area is earlier estimated as 50 mm/day, the total surface run off will be

a) 50 mm

b) 60 mm

c) 90 mm

d) 140 mm

Answer: 90 mm

34. The normal annual precipitation at stations X, A, B and C are 700 mm, 1000 mm, 900 mm and 800 mm respectively. If the storm precipitation at three station A, B and C were 100 mm, 90 mm and 80 mm respectively, then the storm precipitation for station X will be

a) 70mm

b) 80mm

c) 90 mm

d) 105 mm

Answer: 70mm

35. The best unit duration of storm for a unit hydrograph is

a) 1 hour

b) one-fourth of basin lag

c) one-half of basin lag

d) equal to basin lag

Answer: one-fourth of basin lag

36. The unit hydrograph due to a storm may be obtained by dividing the ordinates of the direct runoff hydrograph by

a) direct runoff volume

b) period of storm

c) total rainfall

d) none of the above

Answer: direct runoff volume

37. The unit hydrograph of a specified duration can be used to evaluate the hydrograph of storms of

a) same duration only

b) same and shorter duration

c) same and longer duration

d) any duration

Answer: any duration

38. S-hydrograph is used to obtain unit hydrograph of

a) shorter duration from longer duration

b) longer duration from shorter duration

c) both (a) and (b)

d) none of the above

Answer: both (a) and (b)

39. The relation between probability (P) and recurrence interval (T) is given by

a) PT = 1

b) PT2 = 1

c) P/T = 1

d) P/T2 = 1

Answer: PT = 1

40. Dimensions of coefficient of transmissibility are

a) M°L°T°

b) rvfL’T”1

c) M° L2 T1

d) M’LV

Answer: M° L2 T1

41. If d is the depth of the aquifer through which water is flowing, then the relationship between permeability k and transmissible T is given by

a) T = kd

b) T = k/d

c) T= Vkd

d) k= VTd

Answer: T = kd

42. An artesian aquifer is the one where

a) water surface under the ground is at atmospheric pressure

b) water is under pressure between two impervious strata

c) water table serves as upper surface of zone of saturation

d) none of the above

Answer: water is under pressure between two impervious strata

43. A deep well

a) is always deeper than a shallow well

b) has more discharge than a shallow well

c) is weaker structurally than a shallow well

d) both (a) and (b)

Answer: has more discharge than a shallow well

44. A multipurpose reservoir is the one which is

a) designed for one purpose but serves more than one purpose

b) planned and constructed to serve various purposes

c) both (a) and (b)

d) none of the above

Answer: planned and constructed to serve various purposes

45. The useful storage is the volume of water stored in the reservoir between

a) minimum pool level and maximum pool level

b) minimum pool level and normal pool level

c) normal pool level and maximum pool level

d) river bed and minimum pool level

Answer: minimum pool level and normal pool level

46. The water stored in the reservoir below the minimum pool level is called

a) useful storage

b) dead storage

c) valley storage

d) surcharge storage

Answer: dead storage

47. For a flood control reservoir, the effective storage is equal to

a) useful storage – valley storage

b) useful storage + surcharge storage

c) useful storage + surcharge storage + valley storage

d) useful storage + surcharge storage -valley storage

Answer: useful storage + surcharge storage -valley storage

48. Trap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of

a) capacity/inflow ratio

b) capacity/outflow ratio

c) outflow/inflow ratio

d) none of the above

Answer: capacity/inflow ratio

49. The total capacity of a reservoir is 25 million cubic metres and dead storage is 5 million cubic metres. If the average volume of sediment deposition is 0.10 million cubic metre per year, then the usefulness of the reservoir will start reducing after

a) 50 years

b) 150 years

c) 200 years

d) 250 years

Answer: 50 years

50. The forces, which are considered for the analysis of an elementary profile of a gravity dam under empty reservoir condition, are

i) Water pressure

ii) Self weight

iii) Uplift

iv) Pressure due to earthquake

The correct answer is

a) Only (ii)

b) (i), (ii) and (iii)

c) (i), (ii) and (iv)

d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: Only (ii)

51. When the upstream face of a gravity dam is vertical, then the intensity of water pressure at the water surface and at the base respectively will be

a) 0 and wH212

b) wH2/2and wH2/3

c) wH and 0

d) OandwII

where w is unit weight of water and H is the depth of water.

Answer: OandwII

52. The uplift pressure on a dam can be controlled by

i) constructing cutoff under upstream face

ii) constructing drainage channels bet-ween the dam and its foundation

iii) by pressure grouting in foundation

The corret answer is

a) only (i)

b) both (i) and (ii)

c) both (i) and (iii)

d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: (i), (ii) and (iii)

53. The uplift pressure on the face of a drainage gallery in a dam is taken as

a) hydrostatic pressure at toe

b) average of hydrostatic pressure at toe and heel

c) two-third of hydrostatic pressure at toe plus one-third of hydrostatic pressure at heel

d) none of the above

Answer: two-third of hydrostatic pressure at toe plus one-third of hydrostatic pressure at heel

54. Horizontal acceleration due to earthquake results in

a) hydrodynamic pressure

b) inertia force into the body of the dam

c) both (a) and (b)

d) none of the above

Answer: both (a) and (b)

55. Hydrodynamic pressure due to earthquake acts at a height of

a) 3H/47I above the base

b) 3H747t below the water surface

c) 4H/371 above the base

d) 4H737t below the water surface where H is the depth of water.

Answer: 4H/371 above the base

56. The major resisting force in a gravity dam is

a) water pressure

b) wave pressure

c) self-weight of dam

d) uplift pressure

Answer: self-weight of dam

57. When the reservoir is full, the maximum compressive force in a gravity dam is produced

a) at the toe

b) at the heel

c) within the middle third of base

d) at centre of base

Answer: at the toe

58. The maximum permissible eccentricity for no tension at the base of a gravity dam is

a) B/2

b) B/3

c) B/4

d) B/6

Answer: B/6

59. Presence of tail water in a gravity dam

i) increases the principal stress

ii) decreases the principal stress

iii) increases the shear stress

iv) decreases the shear stress

The correct answer is

a) (i) and (iii)

b) (i)and(iv)

c) (ii) and (iii)

d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer: (ii) and (iv)

60. For wave action in dams, the maximum height of freeboard is generally taken to be equal to

a) 0.5 hw

b) 0.75 hw

c) 1.25 hw

d) 1.50 hw

where hw is height of wave.

Answer: 1.50 hw

61. As compared to gravity dams, earthen dams

a) are costlier

b) are less susceptible to failure

c) require sound rock foundations

d) require less skilled labour

Answer: require less skilled labour

62. The most suitable material for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type dam is

a) clay

b) coarse sand

c) silty clay

d) clay mixed with fine sand

Answer: clay mixed with fine sand

63. Seepage through embankments in an earthen dam is controlled by

a) drainage filters

b) relief wells

c) drain trenches

d) provision of downstream berms

Answer: drain trenches

64. Seepage through foundation in an earthen dam is controlled by providing

a) rock toe

b) horizontal blanket

c) impervious cut off

d) chimney drain

Answer: impervious cut off

65. The flow of water after spilling over the weir crest in chute spillway and side channel spillway respectively are

a) at right angle and parallel to weir crest

b) parallel and at right angle to weir crest

c) parallel to weir crest in both

d) at right angle to weir crest in both

Answer: at right angle and parallel to weir crest

66. The discharge passing over an ogee spillway is given by

a) CLH3/2

b) CHL3/2

c) CLH5/2

d) CLH1/2

where, L is effective length of spillway crest and H is the total head over the spillway crest including velocity head.

Answer: CLH3/2

67. Coefficient of discharge of an ogee spillway

a) depends on depth of approach and upstream slope

b) depends on downstream apron interference and downstream submergence

c) remains constant

d) both (a) and (b)

Answer: both (a) and (b)

68. Which of the following spillways is least suitable for an earthen dam ?

a) ogee spillway

b) chute spillway

c) side channel spillway

d) shaft spillway

Answer: ogee spillway

69. In case of non-availability of space due to topography, the most suitable spillway is

a) straight drop spillway

b) shaft spillway

c) chute spillway

d) ogee spillway

Answer: shaft spillway

70. In a chute spillway, the flow is usually

a) uniform

b) subcritical

c) critical

d) super critical

Answer: super critical

71. For the upstream face of an earthen dam, the most adverse condition for stability of slope is

a) sudden drawdown

b) steady seepage

c) during construction

d) sloughing of slope

Answer: sudden drawdown

72. If there are two canals taking off from each flank of a river, then there will be

a) one divide wall and one undersluice

b) one divide wall and two undersluices

c) two divide walls and one undersluice

d) two divide walls and two undersluices

Answer: two divide walls and two undersluices

73. Generally the weir is aligned at right angles to the direction of the main river current because

a) it ensures less length of the weir

b) it gives better discharging capacity

c) it is economical

d) all of the above

Answer: all of the above

74. The main function of a divide wall is to

a) control the silt entry in the canal

b) prevent river floods from entering the canal

c) separate the undersluices from weir proper

d) provide smooth flow at sufficiently low velocity

Answer: separate the undersluices from weir proper

75. A divide wall is provided

a) at right angle to the axis of weir

b) parallel to the axis of weir and up-stream of it

c) parallel to the axis of weir and down-stream of it

d) at an inclination to the axis of weir

Answer: at right angle to the axis of weir

76. As compared to crest of the normal portion of the weir, the crest of the under sluice portion of weir is kept at

a) lower level

b) higher level

c) same level

d) any of the above depending on the design

Answer: lower level

77. Silt excluders are constructed on the

a) river bed upstream of head regulator

b) river bed downstream of head regulator

c) canal bed upstream of head regulator

d) canal bed downstream of head regulator

Answer: river bed upstream of head regulator

78. According to Khosla’s theory, the exit gradient in the absence of a downstream cutoff is

a) 0

b) unity

c) infinity

d) very large

Answer: infinity

79. The minimum size of stone that will remain at rest in a channel of longitudinal slope S and hydraulic mean depth R is given by

a) 4RS

b) 11 RS

c) 7RS

d) 15 RS

Answer: 11 RS

80. The ratio of average values of shear stresses produced on the bed and the banks of a channel due to flowing water is

a) less than 1

b) equal to 1

c) greater than 1

d) equal to zero

Answer: greater than 1

81. If the critical shear stress of a channel is xc, then the average value of shear stress required to move the grain on the bank is

a) 0.5 xc

b) 0.75 TC

c) xc

d) 1.33 TC

Answer: xc

82. As per Lacey’s theory, the silt factor is

a) directly proportional to average par¬ticle size

b) inversely proportional to average par¬ticle size

c) directly proportional to square root of average particle size

d) not related to average particle size

Answer: directly proportional to square root of average particle size

83. Wetted perimeter of a regime channel for a discharge of 64 cumecs as per Lacey’s theory will be

a) 19 m

b) 38m

c) 57m

d) 76m

Answer: 38m

84. Which of the following canal structures is used to remove surplus water from an irrigation channel into a natural drain?

a) canal fall

b) canal outlet

c) canal escape

d) canal regulator

Answer: 1

85. For a proportional outlet, the flexibility is

a) zero

b) between zero and 1

c) 1

d) greater than 1

Answer: 1

86. The sensitivity of a rigid module is

a) zero

b) between zero and one

c) 1

d) infinity

Answer: zero

87. Which of the following is a flexible outlet ?

a) submerged pipe outlet

b) Kennedy’s gauge outlet

c) Gibb’s outlet

d) none of the above

Answer: Kennedy’s gauge outlet

88. A straight glacis type fall with a baffle platform and a baffle wall is called

a) vertical dropfall

b) glacis fall

c) Montague type fall

d) inglis fall

Answer: inglis fall

89. Which of the following types of falls use parabolic glacis for energy dissipation ?

a) vertical drop fall

b) glacis fall

c) Montague type fall

d) inglis fall

Answer: Montague type fall

90. In a Sarda type fall, rectangular crest is used for discharge upto

a) 6 cumecs

b) 10 cumecs

c) 14 cumecs

d) 20 cumecs

Answer: 14 cumecs

91. Which of the following can be used as a meter fall ?

a) vertical drop fall

b) flumed glacis fall

c) unflumed glacis fall

d) all of the above

Answer: vertical drop fall

92. Vertical drop fall is satisfactory for a height upto

a) 0.5 m

b) 1.5 m

c) 3.5 m

d) 5.0 m

Answer: 1.5 m

93. Which of the following canal outlets maintains a constant discharge ?

a) non-modular outlet

b) flexible outlet

c) rigid module

d) none of the above

Answer: rigid module

94. The ratio of rate of change of the discharge of an outlet to the rate of change of the discharge of distributing channel is called

a) proportionality

b) flexibility

c) setting

d) sensitivity

Answer: flexibility

95. The drainage water intercepting the canal can be disposed of by passing the canal below the drainage in

a) aqueduct and syphon aqueduct

b) aqueduct and super passage

c) super passage and canal syphon

d) level crossing

Answer: super passage and canal syphon

96. If the R.L’s of canal bed level and high flood level of drainage are 212.0 m and 210.0 m respectively, then cross drainage work will be

a) aqueduct

b) superpassage

c) syphon

d) syphon aqueduct

Answer: syphon

97. The aqueduct or superpassage type of works are generally used when

a) high flood drainage discharge is small

b) high flood drainage discharge is large and short lived

c) high flood drainage discharge is large and continues for a long time

d) none of the above

Answer: high flood drainage discharge is small

98. An aggrading river is a

a) silting river

b) scouring river

c) both silting and scouring river

d) neither silting nor scouring river

Answer: silting river

99. Tortuosity of a meandering river is the ratio of

a) meander belt to meander length

b) meander length to meander belt

c) curved length along the channel to the direct axial length of the river reach

d) direct axial length of the river reach to curved length along the channel

Answer: curved length along the channel to the direct axial length of the river reach

100. Water contains

A. one hydrogen atom and one oxygen atom

B. two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom

C. one hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms

D. three hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms

Answer: two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom

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