These FY BCom Maths Sem-1 MCQ PDF will helpful for your upcoming Bachelor’s Degree in Commerce ( BCom) examinations.

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Topic Name: | FY BCom Maths Sem-1 MCQ |

Questions Type: | Multiple Choice Questions |

Number of Questions: | 100 |

Questions Format: | Text & PDF |

PDF Size: | 1 MB |

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## FY BCom Maths Sem-1 MCQ PDF

1. In the special rule of multiplication of probability, the event must be_________.

a) independent

b) mutually exclusive

c) certain

d) none of these

**Answer:** a

2. Which of the following is not a correct statement about probability?

a) it must have a value between 0 to 1

b) it can be reported as a decimal or fraction

c) a value near 0 means that the event is not likely to occur

d) it is the collection of several experiments

**Answer:** d

3. If A and B are two events such that P(A) = 0.3 and P(AUB) = 0.8 and if A and B are independent events, then P(B) =?

a) 5/7

b) 2/3

c) 1

d) none of these

**Answer:** a

4. A single die is rolled. What is the probability of getting 4?

a) 2/6

b) 0

c) 4/6

d) 1/6

**Answer:** d

5. The essential characteristic of the decision model are _________.

a) states of nature

b) courses of action

c) payoffs

d) all of these

**Answer:** d

6. Decision theory is concerned with __________.

a) method of arriving at an optimal decision

b) selecting optimal decision in a sequential manner

c) analysis of information that is available

d) all of the house

**Answer:** d

7. Decision-making is typically described as which of the following?

a) deciding what is correct

b) putting the preference on paper

c) choosing among the alternatives

d) processing information to completion

**Answer:** c

8. Which of the following is not among the reasons for the complexity of the decision?

a) the decision has an immediate, short term impact

b) experts offer contradictory advise

c) managers often share decisions

d) the manager faces many decisions

**Answer:** a

9. In decision analysis, we refer to the consequence resulting from a specific combination of decision alternative and state of nature is a _________.

a) branch

b) consequence

c) node

d) pay-off

**Answer:** d

10. A table showing the pay-off for all combination of decision alternatives and state of nature is called _______.

a) a choice node

b) an expected value

c) a payoff table

d) none of these

**Answer:** c

11. A type of decision-making environment is________.

a) certainty

b) uncertainty

c) risk

d) all of these

**Answer:** d

12. The possible outcomes for a chance event are referred as________.

a) consequence

b) expected values

c) state of nature

d) payoffs

**Answer:** c

13. Payoffs can be expressed in terms of__________.

a) cost

b) time

c) profit

d) none of the above

**Answer:** d

14. Which of the following criterion is not used for decision-making under uncertainty?

a) maximin

b) maximax

c) minimax

d) minimize expected loss

**Answer:** d

15. Which of the following criterion is not applicable to decision-making under risk?

a) maximize expected return

b) maximize return

c) minimize expected regret

d) knowledge of the likelihood of occurrence of each state of nature

**Answer:** b

16. A situation in which a decision-maker knows all of the possible outcomes of a decision and also knows the probability associated with each outcome is referred to as__________.

a) risk

b) certainty

c) uncertainty

d) all of the above

**Answer:** a

17. For decision making with little uncertainty, where managers can estimate the probabilities of event, the most widely used decision rule is ________.

a) expected payoff

b) minimax regret

c) maximax

d) maximin

**Answer:** a

18. A payoff matrix presents all the information required to determine the optimal strategy using the_______.

a) expected value criterion

b) expected loss criterion

c) maximin criterion

d) minimax criterion

**Answer:** c

19. A matrix that for each state of nature and strategy, shows the difference between strategy’s payoff and the best strategy’s payoff is called _________.

a) maximin matrix

b) minimax regret matrix

c) payoff matrix

d) expected profit matrix

**Answer:** b

20. The sequence of possible managerial decisions and their expected outcome under each set of circumstances can be represented and analyzed by using _______.

a) minimax regret matrix

b) payoff matrix

c) decision tree

d) expected profit matrix

**Answer:** c

21. A __________ is a decision support tool that uses a tree-like graph or a model of decisions and their possible consequences.

a) decision tree

b) graphs

c) trees

d) all of these

**Answer:** a

22. Which among the following are decision tree nodes?

a) decision nodes

b) chances nodes

c) end notes

d) all of these

**Answer:** d

23. Which one of the following is not a right of shareholders?

a) To receive a dividend declared by the company

b) To attend and vote a meetings

c) To receive the company’s accounts

d) To manage company’s affairs

**Answer:** d

24. Shares issues without any special rights attached to them are known as:

a) Ordinary shares

b) Preference shares

c) Bonus shares

d) None of these

**Answer:** a

25. Which among the following is printed on the share certificate?

a) Market value

b) Face value

c) Both A and B

d) No any value is printed on the share certificate

**Answer:** b

26. When the market value is more than face value, it is referred to as.

a) At par

b) At premium

c) At discount

d) none of these

**Answer:** b

27. When the market value is less than face value, its referred to as

a) At par

b) At premium

c) At discount

d) none of these

**Answer:** c

28. When the market value is equal to face value it is referred to as.

a) At par

b) At premium

c) At discount

d) none of these

**Answer:** a

29. The face value of a share

a) Changes frequently

b) Changes annually

c) Changes according to the market condition

d) Remain constant

**Answer:** d

30. The market value of shares

a) Changes frequently

b) Changes annually

c) Changes according to the market condition

d) Remain constant

**Answer:** c

31. Which statement about bonus shares is true?

a) they may be issued for repayment of debenture

b) they may be issued at a premium

c) they may be issued to the holders of preference shares

d) they may be issued using the premium received from an issue of preference shares

**Answer:** d

32. An investment company____

a) specializes in investing funds on behalf of the financial institution

b) is a closed-ended fund that invests in real estate

c) pools fund from individual investors

d) is a specific type of bank

**Answer:** c

33. An investment company that will repurchase shares at any time it is called an ____fund.

a) closed-ended

b) open-ended

c) public

d) none of these

**Answer:** b

34. An investment company that issues a fixed number of shares that can only be resold in the form open stock market is called ______ fund.

a) closed-ended

b) open-ended

c) public

d) none of these

**Answer:** c

35. Which of the following statement about mutual funds is true?

a) all mutual funds are the same.

b) the mutual funds allowed the investor to spread the risk among the several stocks and bonds.

c) load fund does not charge a sales commission but invests in lower-quality stocks.

d) many mutual funds do not charge management fees

**Answer:** b

36. A mutual fund is not____

a) owned jointly by all investors

b) a company that manage the investment portfolios of high net worth individuals

c) a pool of funds used to purchase securities on behalf of investors

d) a collective investment vehicles

**Answer:** b

37. The “load” charged to an investor in a mutual fund is _____.

a) entry fee

b) cost of the paper on which unit certificates are printed

c) the fee the agent charges to the investor

d) the expense incurred by the fund manager for marketing mutual fund scheme

**Answer:** d

38. The load cannot be recovered____.

a) at the time of the investor’s entry into the fund

b) as a fixed amount each year

c) at the time the investor exist the fund

d) from the fund distribution agent

**Answer:** d

39. The value of load mutual fund’s assets less its liabilities divided by the number of shares outstanding is referred to as the fund’s ___.

a) net asset value

b) offering price

c) open-ended value

d) closed-ended value

**Answer:** a

40. A fee that is charged at the time mutual fund shares are purchased by an investor it is called a _____.

a) contingent deferred sales charges

b) back-end-load

c) front-end-load

d) none of these

**Answer:** c

41. The maximum load that the fund can charge is determined by AMC the ____.

a) AMC

b) SEBI

c) AMFI

d) distribution agents based on demand for the fund

**Answer:** b

42. Close-ended funds have lower cash requirements than open-end funds because ____.

a) the close-ended fund has limited lifetimes

b) open-ended funds pay more taxes than closed-ended funds

c) open-ended funds tend to invest in less liquid assets

d) open-ended funds allow investors to redeem their shares at any time

**Answer:** d

43. Shares of closed-ended fund often sell ______.

a) exactly at the net asset value

b) at a discount of the net asset value

c) at a premium to the net asset value

d) at the net asset value, plus a load fee

**Answer:** b

44. Shares of open-ended fund of fund trade:

a) exactly at the net asset value

b) at a discount of the net asset value

c) at a premium to the net asset value

d) at the net asset value, plus a load fee

**Answer:** a

45. The NAV of a mutual fund ____.

a) is always constant

b) keeps going up at a steady rate

c) fluctuations with the market prices moment

d) cannot go down at all

**Answer:** c

46. Net Asset Value of mutual fund scheme is defined as the schemes ____.

a) asset minus liabilities

b) assets per unit

c) asset minus liabilities per unit

d) none of the above

**Answer:** c

47. The amount required to buy 100 units of a scheme having an entry load of 1.5 % and Net Asset Value of ₹20 is ____.

a) 2000

b) 2015

c) 1985

d) 2030

**Answer:** d

48. Find out the number of ways in which 6 rings of different types can be worn in 3 fingers?

a) 120

b) 720

c) 125

d) 729

**Answer:** d

49. In how many ways can 5 Man draw water from 5 taps if no tap can be used more than once?

a) 60

b) 120

c) 725

d) none of these

**Answer:** b

50. The number of distinct permutations that can be formed from all the letters of the word “RADAR” is ___

a) 30

b) 32

c) 28

d) 21

**Answer:** a

51. From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a committee so that at least 3 men are there on the committee. In how many ways it can be done?

a) 546

b) 645

c) 735

d) 756

**Answer:** d

52. Out of 7 consonants and 4 vowels how many words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels can be formed?

a) 210

b) 1050

c) 25200

d) 21400

**Answer:** c

53. In a group of 6 boys and 4 girls, four children are to be selected. In how many different ways can they are selected such that at least one boy should be there?

a) 159

b) 194

c) 205

d) 209

**Answer:** d

54. In how many ways a committee, consisting of 5 men and 6 women can be formed from 8 men and 10 women?

a) 266

b) 5040

c) 11760

d) 86400

**Answer:** c

55. How many 4-letter words with or without meaning, can be formed out of the letters of the word, “LOGARITHM”, if repetition of letters is not allowed?

a) 40

b) 400

c) 5040

d) 2520

**Answer:** c

56. A company has 10 software engineers and 6 civil engineers. In how many ways can a committee of 4 engineers be formed from them such that the committee must contain exactly 1 civil engineer?

a) 800

b) 720

c) 680

d) 740

**Answer:** b

57. How many signals can be made using 6 different coloured flags when any number of them can be hoisted at a time?

a) 1956

b) 1720

c) 2020

d) 1822

**Answer:** a

58. The number of ways of selecting 4 cards of an ordinary pack of playing cards so that exactly 3 of them are of the same denomination is ____.

a) 2496

b) 2552

c) 2400

d) 2448

**Answer:** a

59. The number of ways in six + and 4 – signs can be arranged in the line such that no two – sign occur together is __.

a) 30

b) 35

c) 42

d) 28

**Answer:** b

60. There are 15 points in a plane, no two of which are in a straight line except 4, all of which are in a straight line. The number of triangles that can be formed by using these 15 points is ___.

a) 404

b) 415

c) 451

d) 490

**Answer:** c

61. The number of the arrangement of the letters of the word BANANA in which two N’s do not appear adjacently is ___.

a) 40

b) 60

c) 80

d) 100

**Answer:** a

62. An event manager has ten patterns of chairs and eight patterns of tables. In how many ways can he make a pair of table and chair?

a) 100

b) 80

c) 110

d) 64

**Answer:** b

63. How many 6 digit telephone numbers can be formed if each number starts with 35 and no digit appears more than once?

a) 720

b) 360

c) 1420

d) 1680

**Answer:** d

64. 25 buses are running between two places P and Q. In how many ways can a person go from P to Q and return by a different bus?

a) 600

b) 576

c) 625

d) none of these

**Answer:** a

65. The objective of linear programming for an objective function is to ____.

a) maximize or minimize

b) find inequalities

c) find feasible region

d) none of these

**Answer:** a

66. In linear programming, the objective function and objective constraint are ____.

a) solved

b) linear

c) quadratic

d) adjacent

**Answer:** b

67. _____ are expressed is n the form of inequities or equations.

a) constraints

b) objective functions

c) both A and B

d) none of these

**Answer:** a

68. The objective functions and constraints are the linear relationship between ____.

a) variables

b) constant

c) functions

d) all of these

**Answer:** a

69. For linear inequalities, the solution set for a group of inequalities is classified as _____.

a) concave set

b) convex set

c) loss set

d) profit set

**Answer:** b

70. Which of the following is a property of all linear programming problems?

a) an alternate course of action to choose from

b) minimization of some objective

c) usage of the graph in the solution

d) sage of linear and nonlinear equations and inequalities

**Answer:** a

71. The graphic method can be applied to solve an LLP when there are only ____ variable.

a) one

b) more than one

c) two

d) three

**Answer:** c

72. A minimization problem can be converted into a maximization problem by changing the sign of coefficient in the ____.

a) constraints

b) objective functions

c) both A and B

d) none of these

**Answer:** b

73. A point that satisfies all of our problems constant simultaneously is a(n) _____.

a) corner point

b) the intersection of the profit line and a constraint

c) the intersection of two or more constraints

d) none of these

**Answer:** d

74. The first step in formulating an LP problem is ____.

a) graph the problem

b) understand the managerial problem being faced

c) identify the objective and the constraints

d) define the decision variables

**Answer:** b

75. LP theory states that the optimal solution to any problem will lie at ____.

a) the origin

b) a corner point of the feasible region

c) the highest point of the feasible region

d) the lowest point in the feasible region

**Answer:** b

76. In order for a linear programming problem to have a unique solution, the solution must exist____.

a) at the intersection of the non-negativity constraints

b) at the intersection of non-negative constraint and a resources constraint

c) at the intersection of the objective function and a constraint

d) at the intersection of two or more constraints

**Answer:** d

77. Total profit is maximized when the objective function as a straight line on a graph is _____.

a) furthest from the origin and the tangent to the feasible region

b) nearest to the origin and tangent to the feasible region

c) nearest to the origin irrespective of the visible region

d) None of these

**Answer:** a

78. The mean the median and the mode___________.

a) Are all measures the central tendency

b) all are applicable to continuous or scale data only

c) are all suitable equivalent measure of the average, irrespective of the distribution

d) always have values that are very similar when calculated from the same data set

**Answer:** a

79. The variable value having a maximum frequency in a frequency distribution is called_________.

a) mean

b) median

c) mode

d) variance

**Answer:** c

80. Mean is a measure of_________.

a) Central value

b) dispersion

c) correlation

d) none of these

**Answer:** a

81. Out of all the measures of central tendency __________is, the only measures which are not unique.

a) mean

b) median

c) mode

d) variance

**Answer:** c

82. Which of the following is a measure of Central value?

a) median

b) standard deviation

c) mean deviation

d) quartile deviation

**Answer:** a

83. Which of the following measure of Central tendency is not affected by extreme values?

a) mode

b) median

c) sixth decile

d) all of these

**Answer:** d

84. In the case of weighted mean, the accuracy or utility of mean_______.

a) decreases

b) increases

c) is unaffected

d) none of these

**Answer:** b

85. The measure of central tendency which cannot be calculated with open end class in case of grouped data is________.

a) median

b) arithmetic mean

c) mode

d) third quartile

**Answer:** b

86. The sum of the deviations about mean is_________.

a) zero

b) minimum

c) maximum

d) one

**Answer:** a

87. The sum of the deviation about median is_________.

a) zero

b) minimum

c) maximum

d) one

**Answer:** c

88. The sum of the square of deviations about mean is________.

a) zero

b) minimum

c) maximum

d) one

**Answer:** b

89. Weighted mean gives higher value than unweighted mean if_________.

a) all the items have equal weights

b) larger items have higher weights and small items have lower weight

c) larger items have lower weights and smaller item have higher weights

d) none of these

**Answer:** b

90. If the mean is 25 and the standard deviation is 5, then CV is_________.

a) 100%

b) 50%

c) 20%

d) none of these

**Answer:** c

91. Which among the following is used to compare the variation or dispersion in two or more sets of data even though they are measured in different units?

a) range

b) standard deviation

c) coefficient of variation

d) mean deviation

**Answer:** c

92. Which among the following is used to find the consistency of performance?

a) range

b) standard deviation

c) coefficient of variation

d) mean deviation

**Answer:** c

93. Which of the following statements is true?

a) the standard deviation can take a negative value

b) the variance and standard deviation are always appropriate descriptive measures for any set of continuous or scale data

c) the variance and standard deviation are measures of spread or dispersion

d) if each of a set of scores is multiplied by a constant, the value of the standard deviation increases fourfold

**Answer:** c

94. A histogram________.

a) is a graphic representation of the frequency distribution of a continuous variable

b) is a graphic representation of the frequency distribution of the qualitative or categorical variable

c) is an alternative to a pie chart

d) is a bar chart

**Answer:** a

95. John has a test score of 64, which is at the 90th percentile. This means that__________.

a) 5% of people score lower than 64

b) 90 % people score lower than 64

c) 10 % of people score lower than 64

d) 90 % of people score higher than 64

**Answer:** b

96. The measures of dispersion can never be________.

a) positive

b) zero

c) negative

d) equal to 2

**Answer:** c

97. The standard deviation is the____________.

a) square of variance

b) the square root of the variance

c) average of all the deviations of scores from the mean

d) average of the square root of deviation of scores from the mean

**Answer:** b

98. The average of the square deviations from the arithmetic mean is called________.

a) variance

b) mean deviation

c) standard deviation

d) none of these

**Answer:** a

99. A measure of relative dispersion is given by the__________.

a) variance

b) range

c) standard deviation

d) coefficient variation

**Answer:** d

100. If the occurrence of one event means that another cannot happen, then the event are ________.

a) independent

b) mutually exclusive

c) certain

d) none of these

**Answer:** b