250+ Principles of Inheritance and Variation NEET Questions with Answers

Are you looking for Principles of Inheritance and Variation Questions and Answers for NEET and other medical entrance examinations? If yes, these are some most important multiple choice questions and answers on NCERT Class-12 Biology, Chapter-5 (Principles of Inheritance and Variation).

Here we composed these 250+ MCQs and Answers on Principles of Inheritance and Variation after reading the chapter on Principles of Inheritance and Variation from the NCERT book on Class 12 Biology. The questions are topics-wise and the students can relate the questions easily to the most important topics of this chapter.

Principles of Inheritance and Variation NEET Questions and Answers

Mendel’s Laws of Inheritance MCQ and Answers

1. The process of transfer of characters from parents to offspring is referred to as ______

a) Inheritance

b) Heritage

c) Genetics

d) Variation

Answer: a


2. What determines the differences between the progeny and parents?

a) Inheritance

b) Heritage

c) Genetics

d) Variation

Answer: d


3. Which of the following approaches used by early humans is not an instance of exploitation of variation in population for the benefit of society?

a) Domestication of dog

b) Domestication of cow

c) Artificial selection of wheat as a crop

d) Invention of fire

Answer: d


4. Who proposed the laws of inheritance in living organisms?

a) Gregor Mendel

b) James Watson

c) Francis Crick

d) Erwin Chargaff

Answer: a


5. What technique in plant biology was used by Gregor Mendel to derive the patterns of inheritance?

a) Hybridization

b) Mutagenesis

c) Exportation

d) Importation

Answer: a


6. Which of the following is a recessive trait in pea plants?

a) Dwarf stem height

b) Violet flowers

c) Axial flowers

d) Inflated pods

Answer: a


7. If you were to sample garden pea plants in Mendel’s garden, which of the following statements would hold?

a) Round seeds were more abundant than wrinkled seeds

b) Wrinkled seeds were more abundant than round seeds

c) Both round and wrinkled seeds were equally abundant

d) Answer depends on the time of day when sampling is done

Answer: a


8. What, according to Medel, was responsible for the inheritance of specific traits?

a) Genes

b) Factors

c) Chromosomes

d) DNA

Answer: b


9. The structure of DNA by ______ received the Nobel Prize in 1962.

a) Maurice Wilkins

b) Rosalind Franklin

c) Francis Crick

d) Erwin Chargaff

Answer: c


10. What branch of biology focusses on the study of patterns of inheritance?

a) Genetics

b) Immunology

c) Evolution

d) Ecology

Answer: a


11. What was the model organism used by Mendel to give the laws of inheritance?

a) Garden peas

b) Wild peas

c) Basket peas

d) Bottle gourd

Answer: a


12. Which of the following is not an attribute associated with Mendel’s studies?

a) Mathematical analysis

b) Larger sampling size

c) A reliable and credible data source generation

d) Frequent killing of the model organism

Answer: d


13. Which of the following is not a pair of contrasting traits studied by Mendel?

a) Green and yellow pods

b) Full and constricted pods

c) Axial and terminal flowers

d) Pink and white flowers

Answer: d


14. What was the type of pea lines used by Mendel?

a) True-breeding

b) False-breeding

c) Not breeding

d) Indefinitely breeding

Answer: a


15. What method is used to produce a true-breeding line?

a) Self-pollination

b) Cross-pollination

c) Artificial pollination

d) Allogamy

Answer: a


16. Which of the following is a dominant character in pea plants?

a) Tall stem height

b) White flowers

c) Terminal flowers

d) Constricted pods

Answer: a


Inheritance of One Gene MCQ and Answers

17 What is the process of removal of anthers termed?

a) Demasculation

b) Emasculation

c) Remasculation

d) Masculation

Answer: b


18. What process needs to be avoided for carrying of efficient crosses?

a) Self-pollination

b) Fertilization

c) Development of embryo

d) Pollen tube development

Answer: a


19. What is the generation of plants produced by the crossing of true-breeding plants called?

a) F1

b) F0

c) F2

d) F3

Answer: a


20. What does F in “F1 progeny” stand for?

a) Filial

b) Fillial

c) Filum

d) Filler

Answer: a


21. What should be the phenotype of the F1 progeny produced by a cross between tall and dwarf true-breeding garden pea plants?

a) Tall plants

b) Dwarf plants

c) Intermediate plants

d) Mixed population of tall and dwarf plants

Answer: a


22. I = Inflated, i = constricted. Given that the phenotype of F1 progeny is inflated pods and that the parents are true-breeding, which of the following is not a possible genotype of parents?

a) Parent 1: II; Parent 2: ii

b) Parent 1: II; Parent 2: II

c) Parent 1: ii; Parent 2: ii

d) Parent 1: ii; Parent 2: II

Answer: c


23. What should be the phenotype of a cross between violet and white-flowered true-breeding garden pea plants?

a) Violet

b) White

c) Pink

d) Red

Answer: a


24. With green pods as a dominant trait over yellow, which of the following crosses will result in all progeny having yellow pods?

a) Homozygous green and homozygous yellow

b) Heterozygous green and heterozygous green

c) Homozygous yellow and homozygous yellow

d) Homozygous green and homozygous green

Answer: c


25. If VV produces violet flowers and vv produces white flowers, what will be the phenotype and genotype of the F1 progeny?

a) All violet; Tt

b) All white; tt

c) All violet; TT and Tt

d) All violet; TT, Tt, and tt

Answer: a


26. The factor which expresses in homozygous and heterozygous states is called _______

a) dominant

b) recessive

c) gene

d) allele

Answer: a


27. A plant that exhibits two alleles for only one trait is called ________

a) monohybrid

b) dihybrid

c) monogamous

d) digamous

Answer: a


28. During meiosis, what happens to the parental alleles?

a) They segregate

b) They undergo repair

c) They undergo breakage

d) They replicate

Answer: a


29. The presence of two different alleles at a particular locus results in _________

a) Homozygosity

b) Heterozygosity

c) Hemizygosity

d) Nullizygosity

Answer: b


30. Self-pollination of F1 progeny will result in a new filial generation called _______

a) F1

b) F0

c) F2

d) F1.1

Answer: c


31. What are the possible phenotypes that can be observed after self-crossing violet flowered pea plants?

a) All violet

b) All white

c) 25% violet and 75% white

d) 25% white and 75% violet

Answer: d


32. Which of the following was not observed in F2 progeny of true-breeding tall and dwarf plants?

a) Homozygous tall plants

b) Heterozygous tall plants

c) Homozygous dwarf plants

d) Heterozygous dwarf plants

Answer: d


33. Based on his experiments on pea plants, what were the things that he suspected of being transferred across generations?

a) Genes

b) Factors

c) Chromosomes

d) DNA

Answer: b


34. What exactly are Mendel’s factors?

a) Genes

b) Proteins

c) Chromosomes

d) RNA

Answer: a


35. What are the copies of genes that code for different phenotypes called?

a) Alleles

b) Gametes

c) Chromatin

d) DNA

Answer: a


36. Which zygosity has the same allelic pair of genes?

a) Homozygosity

b) Heterozygosity

c) Hemizygosity

d) Nullizygosity

Answer: a


37. VV, Vv and vv are _______, while violet and white are _________

a) genotypes, phenotypes

b) phenotypes, genotypes

c) genotypes, genotypes

d) phenotypes, phenotypes

Answer: a


38. The factor expressed only in homozygous state is called _________

a) dominant

b) recessive

c) gene

d) allele

Answer: b


39. What is the cross between VV and vv called?

a) Monohybrid cross

b) Dihybrid cross

c) Monogamous cross

d) Digamous cross

Answer: a


40. What kind of a process is the segregation of alleles during meiosis?

a) Uniform

b) Gaussian

c) Stochastic

d) Poisson

Answer: c


Punnett Square MCQ and Answers

41. What diagram is used to study the production of zygotes in F1 and F2 generation?

a) Punnett square

b) Punnett rectangle

c) Punnett rhombus

d) Punnett circle

Answer: a


42. Who deserves the credit to discover Punnett square?

a) Reginald Punnett

b) Gregor Mendel

c) John Watson

d) Maurice Punnett

Answer: a


43. Where are the parental genotypes mentioned in a Punnett square?

a) Left column and top row

b) Left column and right column

c) Top row and bottom row

d) Right column and bottom row

Answer: a


44. What is represented in the boxes of the Punnett square?

a) Gametes of male parent

b) Gametes of female parent

c) Genotype of the offspring produced

d) Genotype of all possible offsprings

Answer: a


45. What gametes are produced by a Vv heterozygous plant?

a) 50% V and 50% v

b) 75% V and 25% v

c) 25% V and 75% v

d) 100% V and 0% v

Answer: a


46. Which of the following is the correct number of offsprings produced by self-fertilization of a heterozygous pea plant for a trait that exhibits Mendelian genetic pattern?

a) 250 Homozygous dominant, 500 Heterozygous dominant and 250 Homozygous recessive

b) 125 Homozygous dominant, 125 Heterozygous dominant and 125 Homozygous recessive

c) 500 Homozygous dominant, 501 Heterozygous dominant and 250 Homozygous recessive

d) 500 Homozygous dominant, 250 Heterozygous dominant and 500 Homozygous recessive

Answer: a


47. The ratio of genotypes observed in progeny after a cross has been performed is called ________

a) genotypic ratio

b) phenotypic ratio

c) absolute ratio

d) relative ratio

Answer: a


48. The ratio of phenotypes observed in progeny after a cross has been performed is called ________

a) genotypic ratio

b) phenotypic ratio

c) absolute ratio

d) relative ratio

Answer: b


49. What generation of Mendelian cross has a phenotypic ratio of 3:1?

a) F0

b) F1

c) F2

d) F3

Answer: c


50. According to the law of dominance, what are the discrete units that control the characters?

a) Factors

b) Multipliers

c) Divisors

d) Remainders

Answer: a


51. Which of the following is not a statement of the principle of dominance?

a) Factors occur in pairs

b) One factor is dominant over the other

c) Factors control characters

d) Factors segregated during the process of meiosis

Answer: d


52. A homozygous parent produces gametes that are ______; while the heterozygous parent produces gametes that are _______

a) similar; similar

b) similar; dissimilar

c) dissimilar; dissimilar

d) dissimilar; similar

Answer: b


53. What filial generation exhibits a genotypic ratio of 1:2:1?

a) F0

b) F1

c) F2

d) F3

Answer: b


54. Which mathematical expression can be used to obtain the genotypic ratio of F2 offsprings from the gametes of the F1 progeny?

a) Monomial expression

b) Binomial expression

c) Trinomial expression

d) Algebraic expression

Answer: b


55. Self-crossing of dwarf plants from F2 generation will produce _____

a) 100% tall and 0% dwarf plants

b) 0% tall and 100% dwarf plants

c) 50% tall and 50% dwarf plants

d) 25% tall and 75% dwarf plants

Answer: b


56. What method can be used to check the genotypic composition experimentally of the F2 tall plant?

a) Test cross

b) Self cross

c) Check cross

d) Exam cross

Answer: a


57. What is the genotype of a plant showing a dominant phenotype of violet flowers if it is test crossed and produces only violet-flowered plants?

a) VV

b) Vv

c) vv

d) v

Answer: a


58. What is the genotype of a plant showing a dominant phenotype of violet flowers if it is test crossed and produces both violet-flowered and white-flowered plants?

a) VV

b) Vv

c) vv

d) v

Answer: b


59. What are the rules postulated by Mendel based on his studies of inheritance in pea plants called?

a) Principles of Inheritance

b) Rules of Inheritance

c) Principles of Heredity

d) Rules of Heredity

Answer: a


60. What is the first law of Mendel termed as?

a) Law of Recessivity

b) Law of Dominance

c) Law of Segregation

d) Law of Independent Assortment

Answer: b


61. What is the second law of Mendel called?

a) Law of Recessivity

b) Law of Dominance

c) Law of Segregation

d) Law of Independent Assortment

Answer: c


62. Which of the following is not a law postulated by Mendel?

a) Law of Recessivity

b) Law of Dominance

c) Law of Segregation

d) Law of Independent Assortment

Answer: a


63. Which law explains the expression of the dominant phenotype in the F1 progeny?

a) Law of Recessivity

b) Law of Dominance

c) Law of Segregation

d) Law of Independent Assortment

Answer: b


64. Which law explains the expression of the dominant phenotype in the F2 progeny?

a) Law of Recessivity

b) Law of Dominance

c) Law of Segregation

d) Law of Independent Assortment

Answer: b


65. What does the second law of Mendel state?

a) Factors occur in pairs

b) The alleles separate during meiosis and pair up during fertilization

c) One factor is dominant over the other

d) Factors determine the characters of the offsprings

Answer: b


Incomplete Dominance MCQ and Answers

66. Which of the following shows incomplete dominance?

a) Flower color in garden peas

b) Flower color in snapdragon

c) Blood grouping in humans

d) Pod color in garden peas

Answer: b


67. If a cross between true-breeding red-flowered and true-breeding white-flowered plants give rise to pink-flowered progeny, what is the mode of inheritance?

a) Complete dominance

b) Incomplete dominance

c) Codominance

d) Multiple allelism

Answer: b


68. In the case of incomplete dominance, which zygosity expresses the blending of characters?

a) Homozygosity

b) Heterozygosity

c) Hemizgosity

d) Nullizygosity

Answer: b


69. What holds the information for a particular trait?

a) Gene

b) Genome

c) Exon

d) Intron

Answer: a


70. Which of the following fill not be the nature of enzyme encoded by a recessive gene?

a) Less efficient enzyme

b) No function observed for the enzyme

c) Abnormal function of the enzyme

d) More efficient enzyme

Answer: d


Co-Dominance MCQ and Answers

71. In what mode of inheritance, the F1 progeny exhibit characteristics of both the parents?

a) Complete dominance

b) Incomplete dominance

c) Codominance

d) Multiple allelism

Answer: c


72. Which of the following is an instance of codominance?

a) Flower color in garden peas

b) Flower color in snapdragon

c) Blood grouping in humans

d) Pod color in garden peas

Answer: c


73. ABO blood grouping in humans is an instance of ___________

a) complete dominance

b) incomplete dominance

c) codominance

d) pseudoscience

Answer: c


74. The ABO blood groups are determined by ______ present on RBCs.

a) proteins

b) DNA

c) RNA

d) carbohydrates

Answer: d


75. Which allele of I gene does not result in the production of any sugar antigen?

a) IA

b) IB

c) IC

d) i

Answer: d


76. The cattle coat color inheritance is an instance of _______

a) complete dominance

b) incomplete dominance

c) codominance

d) multiple allelism

Answer: c


77. Which of the following allele is dominant over i?

a) Only IA

b) Only IB

c) Both IA and IB

d) IC

Answer: d


78. What will be the blood group of a person who has IAIB as the genotype?

a) A

b) B

c) AB

d) O

Answer: c


79. What is the ability of both IA and IB alleles to express together called?

a) Complete dominance

b) Incomplete dominance

c) Codominance

d) Multiple allelism

Answer: c


Multiple Allelism MCQ and Answers

80. What mode of inheritance involves more than two forms of gene giving rise to a repertoire of phenotypes?

a) Complete dominance

b) Incomplete dominance

c) Codominance

d) Multiple allelism

Answer: d


81. To discover multiple allelism, it is essential to study _______

a) cells from an individual

b) organs from an individual

c) tissues from an individual

d) population

Answer: d


82. The mode of inheritance depends on _______

a) gene

b) genotype

c) phenotype

d) organism

Answer: c


83. Which of the following is the only possible blood group of progeny obtained from parents that have IAIA and IBIB as their genotypes?

a) A

b) B

c) AB

d) O

Answer: d


84. What will be the blood group of a person who has ii as the genotype?

a) A

b) B

c) AB

d) O

Answer: d


85. If the blood group of an offspring is O, which of the following is not the correct parental genotypes?

a) IAIA, IAIB

b) IAi, IAi

c) IAi, IBi

d) ii, ii

Answer: a


86. What is the blood group of the progeny if one parent donates IA allele while the other donates i?

a) A

b) B

c) AB

d) O

Answer: a


Inheritance of Two Genes MCQ and Answers

87. In order to study the inheritance of two genes, the parents should be true-breeding for _______

a) a single contrasting characters

b) a pair of contrasting characters

c) a pair of chromosomes

d) a single chromosome

Answer: b


88. If round seed (RR) was dominant over wrinkled seed (rr) in a monohybrid cross, and yellow pod (YY) was dominant over brown pod (yy), what should be the starting genotype of parents in a dihybrid cross?

a) RRrr and YYyy

b) RRYY and rryy

c) RRyy and YYrr

d) RrYy and RrYy

Answer: b


89. What is the expected phenotype of F1 progeny of a dihybrid cross for inflated green pod plants and constricted yellow pod plants?

a) Inflated green pods

b) Inflated yellow pods

c) Constricted green pods

d) Constricted yellow pods

Answer: a


90. Given the genotype of parents as AABB and aabb, what is the expected genotype of F1 progeny?

a) AABB

b) AAbb

c) aaBB

d) AaBb

Answer: d


91. What is the zygosity of the F1 progeny of a dihybrid cross?

a) Homozygosity

b) Heterozygosity

c) Hemizygostiy

d) Nullizygosity

Answer: b


92. What is the expected phenotype of F1 generation obtained by the cross between true-breeding round yellow seed plants and true-breeding wrinkled green seed plants?

a) Round green seeds

b) Round yellow seeds

c) Wrinkled green seeds

d) Wrinkled yellow seeds

Answer: a


93. Which of the following phenotypes is not obtained in the F2 generation?

a) Round yellow seeds

b) Wrinkled green seeds

c) Wrinkled round seeds

d) Round green seeds

Answer: c


94. For the cross of round green and wrinkled yellow seeds, which of the following is incorrect with regards to the F2 generation?

a) Round seeds were three times more abundant than yellow seeds

b) Green seeds were three times less abundant than wrinkled seeds

c) Round seeds were as abundant as the green seeds

d) Yellow seeds were three times more abundant than green seeds

Answer: d


95. A cross involving variation in two different traits is called _______

a) monohybrid cross

b) dihybrid cross

c) bihybrid cross

d) polyhybrid cross

Answer: a


96. For the cross of axial violet and terminal white flowers, which of the following is incorrect with regards to the F2 generation?

a) Axial violet are nine times more abundant than white flowers

b) Axial white flowers are as abundant as terminal violet flowers

c) Terminal white flowers are thrice abundant than the axial white flowers

d) Terminal violet flowers are three times more abundant than terminal white flowers

Answer: c


97. What is the phenotypic ratio of F2 generation in a dihybrid cross?

a) 3:1

b) 1:2:1

c) 9:3:1

d) 9:3:3:1

Answer: d


98. Which law was proposed by Mendel based on his dihybrid cross studies?

a) Law of Dominance

b) Law of Recessiveness

c) Law of Segregation

d) Law of Independent Assortment

Answer: d


100. What law talks about the segregation of two or more traits independent of one another?

a) Law of Dominance

b) Law of Recessiveness

c) Law of Segregation

d) Law of Independent Assortment

Answer: d


101. Which of the following is a correct interpretation of the law of independent assortment?

a) Factors exist in pairs

b) Factors segregate such that each gamete gets a single copy

c) For multiple traits under consideration, each segregate independently of one another

d) For multiple traits under consideration, they segregate in a specific pattern

Answer: c


102. If x is the phenotypic ratio of monohybrid cross for trait A and y is the phenotypic ratio of monohybrid cross for trait B, what would be the phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross involving traits A and B?

a) xy

b) x + y

c) x2 + y2

d) (xy)2

Answer: a


103. Which of the following are the correct gametes produced by TtYy?

a) Tt, Yy, TY, ty

b) TY, ty, Tt, Yt

c) Yt, yt, YT, yT

d) YT, yt, yY, tT

Answer: c


104. For a poly hybrid cross concerning N trait, what is the number of squares required in the Punnett square to check for the F2 generation?

a) 2N

b) N2

c) 2(2N)

d) (2N)2

Answer: c


105. For a poly hybrid cross concerning N traits, what is the number of types of gametes produced by the F1 generation?

a) 2N

b) N2

c) 2(2N)

d) (2N)2

Answer: a


Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance MCQ and Answers

106. The lack of publicity of Mendel’s work was due to _______

a) lack of his ability to communicate

b) his deafness

c) lack of the availability of efficient communication methods

d) him being held captive in jail

Answer: c


107. What was the reason for the scientific community not accepting Mendel’s proposal?

a) Mendel’s factors blended, but natural changes were somewhat discrete

b) Mendel’s factors were discrete, but natural changes blended

c) Mendel’s factors were discrete, and natural changes were also discrete

d) Mendel’s factors blended and natural changes also blended

Answer: b


108. The nature exhibits ________ variation.

a) continuous

b) discontinuous

c) uniform

d) discrete

Answer: a


109. What approach used by Mendel was utterly new?

a) Mathematics to study biological phenomena

b) Crossing of plants

c) Growing garden pea plants

d) Emasculation

Answer: a


110. One of the significant drawbacks of Mendel’s work was _________

a) his study on pea plants

b) inability to show the factors being continuous

c) inability to isolate factors

d) inability to prepare proper notes

Answer: c


111. Which of the following scientists was not responsible for the rediscovery of Mendel’s work?

a) de Vries

b) Correns

c) Tschermark

d) Putin

Answer: d


112. The advent of microscopy in the 1900s allowed scientists to visualize _______

a) moon

b) cell division

c) electron

d) nucleon

Answer: b


113. What were the colored bodies observed in the nucleus during the process of division called?

a) Chromosomes

b) Genes

c) DNA

d) RNA

Answer: a


114. Which pair of scientists to correlate chromosome movement during meiosis to Mendel’s predictions?

a) Crick and Watson

b) Newton and Einstein

c) Sutton and Boveri

d) Franklin and Wilkins

Answer: c


115. What was the contribution of Theodore Boveri and Walter Sutton to Mendel’s work?

a) Rediscovery of his work

b) Challenging Mendel

c) Reperforming Mendel’s experiments in lab conditions

d) Chromosome movement correlation with Mendel’s predictions

Answer: d


116. What was the contribution of Correns, von Tschermak, and de Vries to Mendel’s work?

a) Rediscovery of his work

b) Challenging Mendel

c) Reperforming Mendel’s experiments in lab conditions

d) Chromosome movement correlation with Mendel’s predictions

Answer: a


117. Why is the chromosome behavior during cell division similar to the gene behavior?

a) Chromosome learns from gene

b) Gene learns from chromosome

c) Chromosome contains gene

d) Gene contains chromosome

Answer: c


118. What is called an equational division?

a) Mitosis

b) Meiosis

c) Mitrosis

d) Cleavage

Answer: a


119. What is called a reduction division?

a) Mitosis

b) Meiosis

c) Mitrosis

d) Cleavage

Answer: b


120. Chromosomes occur _________; genes occur _________

a) singly, singly

b) singly, in pairs

c) in pairs, singly

d) in pairs, in pairs

Answer: d


121. Alleles of a gene are located on ________

a) homologous chromosomes

b) heterologous chromosomes

c) homologous chromatids

d) heterologous chromatids

Answer: a


122. The duplication of chromosomes occurs during _____

a) G1 phase

b) G2 phase

c) G0 phase

d) G3 phase

Answer: b


123. When does the first segregation of chromosomes occur during meiosis?

a) Meiosis I Anaphase

b) Meiosis I Telophase

c) Meiosis II Anaphase

d) Meiosis II Telophase

Answer: a


124. When does the second segregation of chromosomes occur during meiosis?

a) Meiosis I Anaphase

b) Meiosis I Telophase

c) Meiosis II Anaphase

d) Meiosis II Telophase

Answer: c


125. When does the first segregation of genes occur during meiosis?

a) Meiosis I Anaphase

b) Meiosis I Telophase

c) Meiosis II Anaphase

d) Meiosis II Telophase

Answer: a


126. When does the second segregation of chromosomes occur during meiosis?

a) Meiosis I Anaphase

b) Meiosis I Telophase

c) Meiosis II Anaphase

d) Meiosis II Telophase

Answer: c


127. If the cell at G1 phase at 2 Giga base pairs of DNA, what is the DNA content of the cell right before Telophase II?

a) 1 Giga base pairs

b) 2 Giga base pairs

c) 3 Giga base pairs

d) 4 Giga base pairs

Answer: b


128. If the cell at G1 phase at 2 Giga base pairs of DNA, what is the DNA content of the cell right before Telophase I?

a) 1 Giga base pairs

b) 2 Giga base pairs

c) 3 Giga base pairs

d) 4 Giga base pairs

Answer: d


129. If the cell at G1 phase at 2 Giga base pairs of DNA, what is the DNA content of the cell right after Telophase II?

a) 1 Giga base pairs

b) 2 Giga base pairs

c) 3 Giga base pairs

d) 4 Giga base pairs

Answer: d


130. What phase of Meiosis results in the different combinations of chromosomes occurring in the germ cells?

a) Metaphase I

b) Anaphase I

c) Metaphase II

d) Anaphase II

Answer: a


131. What is each copy of the duplicated chromosome called?

a) Chromatid

b) Chromomere

c) Kinetochore

d) Chromonema

Answer: a


132. What is the pair of homologous chromosomes that line together during the meiosis I called?

a) Chromatid

b) Bivalent

c) Trivalent

d) Divalent

Answer: b


133. Who interpreted by observing the independent segregation of chromosomes during meiosis, that the factors they carry would also separate independently?

a) Crick and Watson

b) Newton and Einstein

c) Sutton and Boveri

d) Franklin and Wilkins

Answer: c


134. What theory was coined by Sutton and Boveri?

a) Chromosomal theory of inheritance

b) Genetic theory of inheritance

c) Theory of Gravitation

d) Universal theory of everything

Answer: a


135. Who was responsible for the theory of chromosomal inheritance?

a) Crick and Watson

b) Newton and Einstein

c) Sutton and Boveri

d) Franklin and Wilkins

Answer: c


136. Which theory states that the segregation of one chromosomal pair during meiosis is independent of the other chromosomal pairs?

a) Chromosomal theory of inheritance

b) Genetic theory of inheritance

c) Theory of Gravitation

d) Universal theory of everything

Answer: a


137. What does the chromosomal theory of inheritance state?

a) Factors segregate independently of each other

b) Genes segregate independently of each other

c) Chromosomes segregate independently of each other

d) Cells divide independently of each other

Answer: c


138. Who was the pioneer of studies in fruit flies?

a) Morgan

b) Sutton

c) Mendel

d) Boveri

Answer: a


139. What is the scientific name of fruit fly?

a) Felis domestica

b) Drosophila melanogaster

c) Drosophila domestica

d) Felis melanogaster

Answer: b


140. Thomas Morgan is known for his studies on ________

a) Felis domestica

b) Drosophila melanogaster

c) Drosophila domestica

d) Felis melanogaster

Answer: b


141. Who was responsible for the experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance using fruit flies?

a) Morgan

b) Sutton

c) Mendel

d) Boveri

Answer: a


142. Which model organism was used to verify the chromosomal theory of inheritance?

a) Felis domestica

b) Drosophila melanogaster

c) Homo sapiens

d) Rattus rattus

Answer: b


143. Which of the following organisms is easy to culture on artificial medium in a laboratory setting?

a) Felis domestica

b) Drosophila melanogaster

c) Homo sapiens

d) Canis familiaris

Answer: b


144. Which of the following is not an advantage of using fruit flies?

a) Low life span

b) Violent organisms

c) Easy to culture

d) Large number of progeny

Answer: b


Linkage and Recombination MCQ and Answers

145. What type of crosses were carried out by Morgan on Drosophila?

a) Monohybrid

b) Dihybrid

c) Bihybrid

d) Trihybrid

Answer: b


146. Which of the collect cross that was performed by Morgan?

a) Yellow-bodied, white-eyed females with brown-bodied, red-eyed males

b) Yellow-bodied, white-eyed males with brown-bodied, red-eyed females

c) Yellow-eyed, white-bodied females with brown-eyed, red-bodied males

d) Yellow-eyed, white-bodied males with brown-eyed, red-bodied females

Answer: a


147. What was the observation made by Morgan based on his dihybrid crosses?

a) Genes segregate independently

b) Genes do not segregate independently

c) Genes disappear

d) New genes appear

Answer: b


148. What chromosome were the genes located on that were used by Morgan in his dihybrid cross?

a) X chromosome

b) Y chromosome

c) W chromosome

d) Z chromosome

Answer: a


149. What is the physical association of genes located on a chromosome called?

a) Linkage

b) Recombination

c) Mutation

d) Replication

Answer: a


150. What is the process of the production of non-parental phenotypes called?

a) Linkage

b) Recombination

c) Mutation

d) Replication

Answer: b


151. Linkage and recombination frequencies have been used to generate ______

a) solutions for global warming

b) genetic maps

c) genetic networks

d) mutation maps

Answer: b


152. Which of the following can be calculated based on crosses?

a) Linkage frequency

b) Recombination frequency

c) Genetic distance

d) Gene density

Answer: b


153. Which of the following cannot be determined from the recombination frequency?

a) Location of a gene on chromosome

b) Gene density of chromosome

c) Linkage pattern

d) Phenotype associated with a gene

Answer: d


154. Farther the genes on a chromosome, higher the chances of ______

a) linkage

b) recombination

c) mutation

d) replication

Answer: b


155. Genes that are tightly linked show _____ recombination

a) high

b) frequent

c) low

d) pseudo

Answer: c


156. Genes that are loosely linked show ______ recombination.

a) high

b) no

c) low

d) pseudo

Answer: a


157. Who was responsible for using the knowledge of recombination frequencies to generate genetic maps?

a) Watson

b) Morgan

c) Mendel

d) Alfred

Answer: d


158. HGP stands for ________

a) Human Genome Project

b) Human Genome Propaganda

c) Human Gene Project

d) Human Gene Propaganda

Answer: a


Polygenic Inheritance MCQ and Answers

159. What kinds of traits were described by Mendel?

a) Contrasting traits

b) Alternative forms

c) Mixed forms

d) Opposite and recessive forms

Answer: a


160. What are polygenic traits?

a) Traits controlled by a single gene

b) Traits not controlled by any genes

c) Traits controlled by two genes

d) Traits controlled by three or more genes

Answer: d


161. Which of the following is a classic example of polygenic inheritance?

a) Skin colour in humans

b) Blood groups

c) Flower colour in peas

d) Stem height in peas

Answer: a


162. What are polygenes?

a) Genes involved in quantitative inheritance

b) Genes involved in the qualitative inheritance

c) Genes involved in multiple allelism

d) Multiple genes for a single trait

Answer: a


163. Which of the following scientists demonstrated the quantitative traits in wheat?

a) Ernst Haeckel

b) H. Nilsson-Ehle

c) West

d) Paul Vincent

Answer: b


164. Which two varieties of wheat were crossed by H. Nilsson to study the kernel colour in wheat?

a) Red and black kernelled variety

b) Red and white kernelled variety

c) White and black kernelled variety

d) Black and blue kernelled variety

Answer: b


165. What was the ratio of F2 generation when red and white kernelled variety of wheat were crossed?

a) 1: 2: 1

b) 9: 3: 3: 1

c) 1: 4: 6: 4: 1

d) 3: 1

Answer: c


166. Which of the following is not a phenotypic class of the F2 generation in wheat?

a) Extreme red

b) Deep red

c) Black

d) White

Answer: c


167. On which of the following factor, the degree of redness of progenies depend?

a) Number of dominant alleles

b) Number of recessive alleles

c) Number of contrasting traits

d) Number of phenotypic characters

Answer: a


168. On how many loci the genes responsible for skin colour are present?

a) Two

b) Three

c) Four

d) Five

Answer: b


169. On which of the following factors, the amount of melanin produced depends?

a) Number of recessive alleles

b) Number of chromosomes present in an individual

c) Number of dominant genes

d) Number of loci present in DNA

Answer: c


170. Which of the following curves can be a representation of the skin colour in a population?

a) Sigmoid curve

b) An ellipse

c) Histogram

d) J-shaped curve

Answer: c


171. Which of the following conclusions can be made by studying a histogram?

a) Extreme phenotypes are common

b) Intermediate phenotypes are more frequent

c) Intermediate phenotypes are rare

d) All phenotypes are present in equal amounts

Answer: b


172. Which of the following is not an example of quantitative trait?

a) Cob length in maize

b) Height in humans

c) Human intelligence

d) Blood groups in humans

Answer: d


Pleiotropy MCQ and Answers

173. How is pleiotropy different from polygenic inheritance?

a) A single gene can exhibit multiple expressions

b) A single gene exhibits only a single expression

c) Two genes exhibit a single character

d) Multiple genes control a single character

Answer: a


174. What is the mechanism behind pleiotropy?

a) A single gene controls a single character

b) Effect of a gene on metabolic pathways

c) Effect of multiple genes on multiple pathways

d) Effect of multiple alleles on a biochemical pathway

Answer: b


175. What is the full form of PKU?

a) Phenyl Ketonic Ubisch bodies

b) Para-keto ulna

c) Phenylketonuria

d) Para-keto uremia

Answer: c


176. Which of the following is not a symptom of phenylketonuria?

a) Mental retardation

b) Reduction in hair

c) White urine

d) Skin pigmentation

Answer: c


177. Which of the following enzymes is not present in the patients of Phenylketonuria?

a) Somatostatin

b) Testosterone

c) Phenylalanine hydroxylase

d) Phenylalanine

Answer: c


178. Accumulation of which of the following in the brain leads to phenylketonuria?

a) Phenylpyruvic acid

b) Pyruvic acids

c) Tyrosine

d) Phenylalanine

Answer: d


179. Which of the following determines is responsible for determining the sex of the bacteria?

a) Plasmid

b) Cytoplasm

c) Core nucleus

d) Vacuole

Answer: a


180. What is the X/A ratio of super females of Drosophila?

a) 1

b) 0.67

c) 1.5

d) 0.33

Answer: c


181. How does Gynander differ from Gynandromorphs?

a) Gynander can only be a male

b) Gynander can only be a female

c) Gynander has patches of tissues of other sex on it

d) Gynander has one half body male and the other half as female

Answer: c


182. Which of the following shows gynandromorphism?

a) Pigeon

b) Silk moth

c) Butterflies

d) Grasshopper

Answer: b


183. Which of the following does not show an environmental mechanism of sex determination?

a) Grasshopper

b) Bonnelia

c) Crepidula

d) Ophryotrocha

Answer: a


184. Which of the following is not an example of sex-limited traits?

a) Milk glands in females

b) Short index finger in male

c) Beard in male

d) Deep male voice

Answer: b


185. Which of the following is a sex-influenced trait?

a) Antlers in male deer

b) Female or male musculature

c) Porcupine skin

d) Pattern baldness

Answer: d


186. Which of the following is not an example of a holandric trait?

a) Porcupine skin

b) Hypertrichosis

c) Pattern baldness

d) Testes determining factor

Answer: c


Sex Determination MCQ and Answers

187. Which of the following animals rely on environmental factors for sex determination?

a) Turtles

b) Humans

c) Grasshopper

d) Firefly

Answer: a


188. How is the sex of grasshopper determined?

a) Temperature

b) Pressure

c) Humidity

d) Genetically

Answer: d


189. The chromosomal basis of sex determination was discovered by which of the following scientists?

a) Stevens

b) Grey

c) Henking

d) Wilson

Answer: c


190. Which of the following scientists discovered the Y-chromosome.

a) Stevens

b) Ernst Haeckel

c) Francis Crick

d) Wilson

Answer: a


191. In which of the following organisms, the male heterogametic condition is not observed?

a) Grasshoppers

b) Humans

c) Drosophila

d) Birds

Answer: d


192. Which of the following determines the sex of the offspring in male heterogametic conditions?

a) Egg

b) Sperm

c) Both egg and sperm

d) It cannot be determined

Answer: b


193. In which of the following animals, there is a difference between the male and female numbers of chromosomes?

a) Humans

b) Drosophila

c) Grasshopper

d) Pigeon

Answer: c


194. Which of the following does not show XY type of male heterogametic condition?

a) Drosophila

b) Human beings

c) Elephants

d) Grasshoppers

Answer: d


195. What is the probability of having a girl child in sixth pregnancy if the first five progenies are boys?

a) 25%

b) 50%

c) 65%

d) 10%

Answer: b


196. What is the full form of TDF?

a) Testis determining factor

b) Testes development factor

c) Thyroxine determining factor

d) Thyroid developing factor

Answer: a


197. Which of the following organisms does not show female heterogametic conditions?

a) Butterflies

b) Grasshopper

c) Moth

d) Birds

Answer: b


198. In which of the following organisms, male has half the number of chromosomes than female?

a) Moths

b) Grasshoppers

c) Honey bees

d) Butterflies

Answer: c


199. What kind of sex-determination system is present in honey bees?

a) Haplodiploid

b) Haploid

c) Diploid

d) XY type

Answer: a


Mutation MCQ and Answers

200. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to mutation?

a) Sudden

b) Continuous

c) Change in chromosomes and genes

d) Leads to variation in DNA

Answer: b


201. Which of the following is not a type of mutation?

a) Gene mutation

b) Chromosomal aberrations

c) Genomatic mutations

d) Colourful mutations

Answer: d


202. Which of the following is a classic example of point mutation?

a) Phenylketonuria

b) Sickle cell anaemia

c) Haemophilia

d) Thalassemia

Answer: b


203. Which of the following is also known as the removal of one or more bases from the nucleotide chain?

a) Deletion

b) Insertion

c) Transition

d) Transversion

Answer: a


204. What is the substitution of a purine base with a pyrimidine base known as?

a) Deletion

b) Transition

c) Addition

d) Transversion

Answer: d


205. Which of the following is not responsible for the formation of chromosomes?

a) DNA

b) Proteins

c) RNA

d) Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: d


206. Intercalary aberrations are a part of which of the following?

a) Deletion

b) Addition

c) Inversion

d) Translocation

Answer: a


207. How does deletion occur?

a) When a part of a chromosome is duplicated

b) When a part of a chromosome is left out

c) When a part of a chromosome is lost

d) When a part of a chromosome is translocated

Answer: c


208. What is translocation?

a) Shifting of part of chromosomes to the outside wall of nucleus

b) Shifting of a chromosome to another chromosome

c) Shifting of a part of a chromosome to another homologous chromosome

d) Shifting of a part of a chromosome to another non-homologous chromosome

Answer: d


209. What is the full form of CML?

a) Chronic myopia lens

b) Chronic myelogenous leukaemia

c) Chronic muscle leukaemia

d) Cystic muscle leukaemia

Answer: b


210. Segmental changes of chromosome having an evolutionary significance, is of which of the following?

a) Deletion

b) Translocation

c) Inversion

d) Addition

Answer: b


211. In which of the following organisms, an inversion occurs frequently?

a) Drosophila

b) Moth

c) Honey bees

d) Butterflies

Answer: a


212. Genomatic mutation is of how many types?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

Answer: b


Pedigree Analysis MCQ and Answers

213. By which of the following methods, a pattern of inheritance can be traced in a family?

a) Pedigree analysis

b) Chromosomal analysis

c) Nuclear analysis

d) Cytoplasm analysis

Answer: a


214. Which was the first chemical mutagen?

a) Nitrogen gas

b) Uranium core

c) Technetium

d) Mustard gas

Answer: d


215. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to aneuploidy?

a) Arises due to the non-disjunction of homologous pair of chromosomes

b) Arises due to the non-disjunction of non-homologous chromosomes

c) One gamete comes to have an extra chromosome

d) Another gamete becomes deficient in one chromosome

Answer: b


216. Which of the following represents nullisomic conditions?

a) 2n-1

b) 2n-2

c) 2n+1

d) 2n+2

Answer: b


217. Which of the following is not an example of aneuploidy?

a) Turner’s syndrome

b) Down’s syndrome

c) Phenylketonuria

d) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Answer: c


218. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to polyploidy?

a) Often seen in plants

b) Results in sterility in animals

c) A decrease in the number of sets of chromosomes

d) Increase in the number of sets of chromosomes

Answer: c


219. Who is the father of Actinobiology?

a) H.J Muller

b) C. Auerbach

c) Stevens

d) Marie Fuller

Answer: a


220. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to ionizing radiation?

a) They cause breaks in the chromosomes

b) The cells ionized show abnormal cell division

c) Frequency of induced mutations is directly proportional to the doses of the radiations

d) It does not lead to cancer

Answer: d


221. Which of the following chemical mutagen is both mutagenic to replicating and non-replicating DNA?

a) Acridines

b) Nitrous acid

c) Base analogs

d) Mustard gas

Answer: b


222. Which of the following mutations is the most common type of mutation?

a) Somatic mutation

b) Germinal mutation

c) Backward mutation

d) Forward mutation

Answer: d


Mendelian Disorders MCQ and Answers

223. People suffering from colour blindness fail to distinguish which of the two colours?

a) Red and Green

b) Blue and Green

c) Red and Blue

d) Red and Yellow

Answer: a


224. When can a female be colour blind?

a) Father has normal vision and the mother is a carrier

b) Father has normal vision and mother is colour blind

c) Father is colour blind and the mother has a normal vision

d) Father is colour blind and mother is a carrier

Answer: d


225. Which of the following type of inheritance is shown by colour blindness?

a) Chromosomal inheritance

b) Criss-cross inheritance

c) Zig-zag inheritance

d) Up-down inheritance

Answer: b


226. What will be the percentage of sons having a normal vision if the father has normal vision and their mother is colour blind?

a) 0%

b) 25%

c) 50%

d) 100%

Answer: a


227. What percentage of children are colour blind if their father is colour blind and the mother is a carrier for Colour blindness?

a) 25%

b) 50%

c) 75%

d) 100%

Answer: b


228. How can a female be haemophilic?

a) Mother is haemophilic and father is normal

b) Mother is a carrier and father is haemophilic

c) Both mother and father are carriers

d) Both mother and father are haemophilic

Answer: b


229. What is the full form of AHG?

a) Anti haemophilic globulin

b) Anti haemoglobin

c) Allergic haemoglobin

d) Allergic haemophilic globulin

Answer: a


230. What is the percentage of children being a carrier of haemophilia if their mother is a carrier and their father is a normal man?

a) 25%

b) 50%

c) 75%

d) 100%

Answer: a


231. How many genotypes of sickle cell anaemia are possible in a population?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

Answer: c


232. In which of the following places thalassemia is not common?

a) Indian subcontinent

b) South-east Africa

c) Mediterranean

d) North America

Answer: d


233. By which of the following defects, thalassemia is caused?

a) Defects in RBCs

b) Defects in WBCs

c) Defects in platelets

d) Defects in lymphocytes

Answer: a


234. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to alpha-thalassemia?

a) Involves the genes HBA1 and HBA2

b) Inherited in a Mendelian dominant fashion

c) Connected to the deletion of the 16p chromosome

d) Result in decreased α-globin production

Answer: b


235. Which of the chromosome mutation leads to Beta-thalassemia?

a) 21

b) 10

c) 11

d) 13

Answer: c


Chromosomal Disorders MCQ and Answers

236. Which of the following is the carrier of genetic information?

a) Proteins

b) Amino acids

c) Carbohydrates

d) DNA

Answer: d


237. On which of the following chromosomal disorders are based on?

a) Mutant allele and their defective products

b) Imbalance in chromosome number and chromosome arrangement

c) Mutant allele and chromosome arrangement

d) Mutant allele and imbalance in chromosome number

Answer: b


238. In which year, Down’s syndrome was described?

a) 1866

b) 1986

c) 1898

d) 1968

Answer: a


239. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Down’s syndrome?

a) Very tall

b) Small round head

c) Furrowed tongue

d) Partially open mouth

Answer: a


240. Which of the following is the characteristic feature of Down’s syndrome?

a) Congenital heart disease

b) Short stature

c) Broad palm with palm crease

d) Underdeveloped gonads

Answer: c


241. Which of the following is not a feature of the tongue of the person suffering from Down’s syndrome?

a) Furrowed tongue

b) Big tongue

c) Wrinkled tongue

d) Straight tongue

Answer: d


242. What is the genotype of the person suffering from Klinefelter’s syndrome?

a) 44+ XXX

b) 42+ XXX

c) 44+ XXY

d) 42+ XXY

Answer: c


243. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Klinefelter’s syndrome?

a) The fusion of an abnormal egg with normal sperm

b) The fusion of a normal egg with an abnormal sperm

c) The fusion of a normal egg with a normal sperm

d) An additional copy of X-chromosome

Answer: c


244. Which of the following is not the character of a person suffering from Klinefelter’s syndrome?

a) Short stature

b) Breast development

c) Small testes

d) Female type pubic hair pattern

Answer: a


245. Which of the following is not the character of the person suffering from Turner’s syndrome?

a) Short stature

b) Poor breast development

c) Well developed ovaries

d) No menstruation

Answer: c


246. Which of the following is a representation of a recessive trait?

a) Achondroplasia

b) Blue eyes

c) Huntington disease

d) Brown eyes

Answer: b


247. Which of the following is the representation of a dominant trait?

a) Widow’s peak

b) Tongue non-roller’s

c) Fused ear lobes

d) Tay-Sachs disease

Answer: a


248. What is the inheritance of characters by plasmagenes known as?

a) Extrafield inheritance

b) Maternal inheritance

c) Extrachromosomal inheritance

d) Maternal inheritance

Answer: c


249. Which of the following is an incorrect statement with respect to organelle inheritance?

a) Iojap inheritance in maize

b) Inheritance of poky

c) Plastid inheritance in Mirabilis jalapa

d) Coiling of shells

Answer: d


FAQs on Principles of Inheritance and Variation

1. What is the principle of inheritance?

Answer: The principle of inheritance states that certain characteristics are passed down from parent to child. This can be through DNA, as is the case with physical traits, or through other means, such as learned behaviors.

2. What is the principle of variation?

Answer: The principle of variation states that there is variation in the characteristics of individuals within a species. This variation can be helpful in survival, as it allows some individuals to be better equipped to deal with changes in their environment.

3. How do these principles interact?

Answer: The principle of inheritance and the principle of variation both play a role in how individuals within a species develop. The principle of inheritance determines which characteristics are passed down from parent to child, while the principle of variation determines the range of variation within those characteristics.

4. What are some examples of these principles in action?

Answer: Some examples of the principle of inheritance in action include physical traits like hair and eye color, as well as learned behaviors like language. The principle of variation can be seen in things like height, weight, and other physical traits, as well as personality traits.

5. Why are these principles important?

Answer: The principles of inheritance and variation are important because they help to explain how and why individuals within a species are different from one another. They also play a role in evolution, as they can help determine which traits are passed down and which traits are lost over time.

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