Are you looking for Evolution Questions and Answers for NEET and other medical entrance examinations? If yes, these are some most important multiple choice questions and answers on NCERT Class-12 Biology, Chapter-7 (Evolution).
Here we composed these 200+ MCQs and Answers on Evolution after reading the chapter on Evolution from the NCERT book on Class 12 Biology. The questions are topics-wise and the students can relate the questions easily to the most important topics of this chapter.
Contents
- 1 Evolution NEET Questions with Answers
- 1.1 Origin of Life MCQ and Answers
- 1.2 Evolution of Life Forms-A Theory MCQ and Answers
- 1.3 Evidences for Evolution MCQ and Answers
- 1.4 Adaptive Radiation MCQ and Answers
- 1.5 Biological Evolution MCQ and Answers
- 1.6 Mechanism of Evolution MCQ and Answers
- 1.7 Hardy-Weinberg Principle MCQ and Answers
- 1.8 A Brief Account of Evolution of Plants MCQ and Answers
- 1.9 A Brief Account of Evolution of Animals MCQ and Answers
- 1.10 Origin and Evolution of Man MCQ and Answers
- 1.11 FAQs on Evolution
- 1.12 Share this:
Evolution NEET Questions with Answers
Origin of Life MCQ and Answers
1. Which theory attempts to explain to us the origin of the universe?
a) Explosion theory
b) Big-Bang theory
c) Black hole theory
d) Gamma theory
Answer: b
2. During evolution, the first cellular form of life appeared before how many million years?
a) 2000
b) 3000
c) 4000
d) 4500
Answer: a
3. Who demonstrated that life originated from pre-existing cells?
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Hugo de Vries
c) Charles Darwin
d) Stanley Miller
Answer: a
4. During the origin of life, which among the following was not found in free form?
a) Methane
b) Ammonia
c) Oxygen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: c
5. Miller in his experiment, synthesized simple amino- acid from ______
a) Methane, ammonia, oxygen, nitrogen
b) Hydrogen, methane, ammonia, water
c) Ammonia, methane, carbon dioxide, oxygen
d) Hydrogen, water, oxygen, helium
Answer: b
6. According to spontaneous generation, life originated _____
a) From microorganisms
b) From similar organisms
c) From air
d) Only spontaneously
Answer: d
7. Stellar distances are measured in _____
a) Kilometer
b) Light years
c) Per second
d) Chandrasekhar limit
Answer: b
8. Oxygen in the atmosphere has been formed by _____
a) Evaporation of water
b) Metabolism of microorganisms
c) Decaying organisms
d) Photosynthesis of blue-green algae
Answer: d
9. Which scientist in his Recapitulation theory stated that “ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny”?
a) Ernst Haeckel
b) Louis Pasteur
c) Charles Darwin
d) S.L. Miller
Answer: a
10. Stanley Miller performed his experiment to the explanation of the origin of life, in which year?
a) 1953
b) 1809
c) 1864
d) 1901
Answer: a
11. What is the most important element for the origin of life?
a) Water
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon
d) Nitrogen
Answer: a
12. The theory of spontaneous generation was rejected by which scientist?
a) Pasteur
b) Lavoisier
c) Kuhn
d) Lamarck
Answer: a
13. Which among the compounds were formed during the origin of life?
a) Urea, amino acid
b) Urea, nucleic acid
c) Proteins, nucleic acid
d) Proteins, amino acid
Answer: c
14. The name of the theory given by Louis Pasteur was called as _______
a) Cellular theory
b) Recapitulation theory
c) Germ theory of disease
d) Pasteurization
Answer: c
15. Life originated on earth about _____
a) 8 billion years ago
b) 5 billion years ago
c) 4 billion years ago
d) 3 billion years ago
Answer: c
16. What did Stanley Miller synthesize in his evolution experiment?
a) Virus
b) Protein
c) Cell
d) Amino acid
Answer: d
17. Nucleoproteins were the first substance to give a sign of ______
a) Species
b) Evolution
c) Life
d) Genes
Answer: c
18. Life first originated in ______
a) Earth
b) Air
c) Water
d) Soil
Answer: c
19. Miller and Urey had performed an experiment to prove the origin of life. They took gases H20 and CH4 along with _______
a) N2 and H2O
b) NH3 and H2
c) CH4 and N2
d) CO2 and NH3
Answer: b
19. At what temperature was the flask maintained in Miller’s experiment?
a) 900°C
b) 800°C
c) 700°C
d) 600°C
Answer: b
20. During the time of evolution, the possible energy sources were ______
a) Chlorophyll
b) Green plants
c) Bacteria
d) U.V rays and lightening
Answer: d
21. During which period, the origin of life take place?
a) Devonian
b) Cenozoic
c) Precambrian
d) Mesozoic
Answer: c
22. During which period, life didn’t exist?
a) Mesozoic
b) Cambrian period
c) Paleozoic period
d) Azoic period
Answer: d
23. During the origin of life, which of the following was absent in the atmosphere?
a) Methane
b) Oxygen
c) Hydrogen
d) Ammonia
Answer: b
24. “The organic compounds were the basis of life” were proved by?
a) Lamarck
b) Darwin
c) Mendel
d) Stanley Miller and Harold C. Urey
Answer: d
25. What is the time gap between the formation of Earth and the origin of life?
a) 1 billion years
b) 0.5 billion years
c) 4 billion years
d) 4.5 billion years
Answer: b
26. The primitive atmosphere was reducing since ______
a) Hydrogen atoms are very few
b) Hydrogen atoms were active and many in number
c) Helium atoms were more
d) Oxygen atoms were more
Answer: b
27. Which among the biologists, gave the most acceptable biochemical theory _____
a) Oparin
b) Urey
c) Darwin
d) Lamarck
Answer: a
28. Absence of oxygen on the earth, made the atmosphere reduce. But it later became oxidizing in nature due to the emergence of ________
a) Angiosperms
b) Gymnosperms
c) Eukaryotic algae
d) Cyanobacteria
Answer: d
29. Which scientist called the water of primitive sea as pre-biotic soup?
a) Haldane
b) Oparin
c) Mendel
d) Stevens
Answer: a
Evolution of Life Forms-A Theory MCQ and Answers
30. Which of the following was not included in theory of special creation?
a) All the living organisms that see today were created as such
b) The diversity was always the same since creation and will be the same in future
c) The earth is about 4000 years old
d) The solar system came from a massive body
Answer: d
31. Who supported the theory of special creation?
a) Father Suarez
b) Father Darwin
c) Lamarck
d) Abbe Lemaitre
Answer: a
32. _______ was the name of the ship in which Darwin sailed around the world.
a) H.S.S Beagle
b) H.M.S Beagle
c) H.P.S Beagle
d) H.M.S Eagle
Answer: b
33. ________ fitness was the fitness referred by Darwin for natural selection?
a) Reproductive
b) Health
c) Survival
d) Physical
Answer: a
34. The scientist who divided the whole world into six major biogeographical regions called realms is _______
a) Hugo de Vries
b) Charles Darwin
c) Alfred Russel Wallace
d) Mathew Morgan
Answer: c
35. Evolution is a ______ process.
a) quick
b) stochastic
c) slow
d) fast
Answer: b
36. It is said to believe that all the continents were present in the form of a single land mass called as ______
a) Pangaea
b) Globe
c) Echidna
d) Prion
Answer: b
37. Survival of fittest was the original idea of ________
a) Charles Darwin
b) Lamarck
c) Gregor Mendel
d) Herbert Spencer
Answer: d
38. The drawback of Darwinism was that it couldn’t explain _______
a) Variations
b) Large rate of production
c) Struggle for existence
d) Reproductive fitness
Answer: a
Evidences for Evolution MCQ and Answers
39. The industrial revolution phenomenon demonstrate _____
a) Gene mutation
b) Genetic drift
c) Natural selection
d) Migration
Answer: c
40. In the ancestry line of Tyrannosaurus, which ancestor is present?
a) Crocodile
b) Triceratops
c) Archaeopteryx
d) Brachiosaurus
Answer: d
41. In some animals, the same structures develop along different directions due to adaptations to different needs, this is called as _____
a) Divergent evolution
b) Convergent evolution
c) Parallel evolution
d) Saltation
Answer: a
42. Which among the following are examples of homologous organs?
a) Wings of butterfly and bird
b) Flippers of penguins and dolphins
c) Eye of octopus and mammals
d) Forelimbs of whales, bats, cheetah and humans
Answer: d
43. The fossils are evidences buried deep inside the soil; they can occur where _______
a) Animals are destroyed by natural disasters
b) Animals are buried and preserved by natural process
c) Animals are eaten by predators
d) Animals die themselves
Answer: b
44. What is the scientific name of moth that demonstrated industrial melanism?
a) Biston betularia
b) Biston formalia
c) Biston mothis
d) Periplaneta americana
Answer: a
45. Which among the following are the characteristics of lichens?
a) They can survive in polluted areas
b) They can eat insects
c) They can indicate industrial pollution
d) They can self-pollinate
Answer: c
46. Dinosaurs are ________
a) Not extinct
b) Extinct
c) Becoming extinct
d) Myths
Answer: b
47. Dinosaurs originated during the period _______
a) Triassic
b) Jurassic
c) Cretaceous
d) Cambrian
Answer: a
Adaptive Radiation MCQ and Answers
48. _______ was the island where Darwin visited and discovered adaptive radiation?
a) Archipelago
b) Galapagos
c) Port Blair
d) Lakshadweep
Answer: b
49. Which food habit of Darwin’s finches lead to the development of many other varieties?
a) Fruiteater
b) Cactus eater
c) Insect eater
d) Seedeater
Answer: d
50. Species which have diverged after origin from common ancestor giving rise to new species adapted to new habitats and ways of life is called as _______
a) Adaptive radiation
b) Divergent evolution
c) Convergent evolution
d) Mutation
Answer: a
51. _______ marsupials were taken as examples of adaptive radiation.
a) American
b) Australian
c) Indian
d) African
Answer: b
52. What do we call the process when more than one adaptive radiation occurs in a single geological place?
a) Divergent evolution
b) Convergent evolution
c) Saltation
d) Overproduction
Answer: b
53. Lemur is a placental mammal that resembles _______ of Australian marsupials.
a) Bobcat
b) Numbat
c) Spotted cuscus
d) Flying phalanger
Answer: c
54. Tasmanian wolf is an example of ________
a) Australian marsupial
b) Placental mammal
c) American marsupial
d) Placental wolves
Answer: a
55. Adaptive radiation does not confirm _______
a) Divergent evolution
b) Homology
c) Convergent evolution
d) Evolution of new forms
Answer: c
56. Which of the following is not an example of placental mammals?
a) Mole
b) Anteater
c) Mouse
d) Tasmanian tiger cat
Answer: d
57. Which of the following is a vestigial organ in animals?
a) Nictitating membrane
b) Scrotum
c) Tail
d) Eyelashes
Answer: a
Biological Evolution MCQ and Answers
58. _________ is the evolution from coacervates to simple cell structure.
a) Chemical evolution
b) Biological evolution
c) Organic evolution
d) Inorganic evolution
Answer: b
59. Which of the following is related to protobionts?
a) Large colloidal drop like structures
b) Formed from micro molecules
c) Do not absorb molecules from the atmosphere
d) Does not contain proteins, nucleic acids, etc.
Answer: a
60. Protobiont was formed by a cluster of ______
a) micro molecules
b) nucleic acids
c) lipids
d) macro molecules
Answer: d
61. What were the first sole living molecules according to Oparin?
a) Diploid
b) Coacervates
c) Mycoplasma
d) Bacteria
Answer: b
62. Who discovered proteinoid microspheres with a primitive membrane?
a) Oparin
b) Haldane
c) Fox
d) Thomas
Answer: c
63. Who among the scientist did not prove that RNA molecules have enzymatic activity?
a) Zaug
b) Thomas Cech
c) Altman
d) Oparin
Answer: d
64. Life originated millions of years ago as ________
a) protobionts
b) eobionts
c) coacervates
d) bacteria
Answer: b
65. What was the mode of respiration for the prokaryotes during biological evolution?
a) Aerobic
b) Anaerobic
c) Cellular
d) External
Answer: b
66. The organisms that perform chemosynthesis for survival are called _____
a) Chemoautotrophs
b) Chemoheterotrophs
c) Chemical organisms
d) Photoautotrophs
Answer: a
67. What was utilized by photoautotrophs during photosynthesis when H2O was absent?
a) HF
b) HCl
c) H2S
d) H2N2
Answer: c
68. Who is the author of the book “The Principle of population”?
a) Thomas Malthus
b) Charles Darwin
c) Hugo de Vries
d) Thomas Mathew
Answer: a
69. The two key concepts branching descent and natural selection belong to ______ theory of evolution.
a) Mendel
b) Darwinian
c) Lamarck
d) Miller
Answer: b
70. Lamarck was a _______ naturalist.
a) French
b) German
c) England
d) Latin
Answer: a
71. Use and disuse theory was given by _______ to prove biological evolution.
a) Ernst Haeckel
b) Louis Pasteur
c) Charles Darwin
d) Lamarck
Answer: d
72. Lamarck used _______ as examples of use and disuse theory.
a) Giraffes
b) Elephants
c) Ostriches
d) Lions
Answer: a
73. Which of the following were not among the basic concepts of Lamarckism?
a) Internal vital forces
b) Use and disuse of organs
c) Struggle for existence
d) Inheritance of acquired characters
Answer: c
74. During biological evolution, the first living organisms were _______
a) Autotrophs
b) Heterotrophs
c) Bacteria
d) Mycoplasma
Answer: b
75. Which among the following are not included in the concept of inheritance of acquired characters?
a) Melanism in the peppered moth
b) Absence of limbs in snakes
c) The long neck of giraffes
d) Retractile claws of carnivorous animals
Answer: a
76. From Lamarck’s theory, giraffes have long necks because ______
a) nature selected long trees
b) humans preferred only long-necked ones
c) of the sudden change of short to long necks
d) stretching of necks over many years by short-necked ones
Answer: d
77. Which of the following is correctly matched?
a) Darwin – Theory of myogenesis
b) Pasteur – Theory of pasteurization
c) Weismann – Theory of continuity of germplasm
d) Hugo de Vries – Use and disuse theory
Answer: c
Mechanism of Evolution MCQ and Answers
78. Hugo de Vries did an experiment on which plant to prove mutation theory?
a) Evening primrose
b) Morning primrose
c) Night primrose
d) Pea pant
Answer: a
79. Which of the following does not belong to Mutation theory?
a) It can appear in all direction
b) It is the raw material of evolution
c) It appears suddenly
d) It is a continuous process
Answer: d
80. _______ is termed as single-step large mutation.
a) Separation
b) Saltation
c) Anti mutation
d) Infinite mutation
Answer: b
81. Which of the following point favor mutation theory?
a) Mutations are not very common
b) Mutations are mostly recessive
c) Mutation give rise to new varieties
d) Evening primrose is not a normal plant
Answer: c
82. Mutation theory couldn’t explain _______
a) development of mimicry
b) saltation
c) variations
d) chromosomes of flowers
Answer: a
83. Who proposed the Evolutionary species concept?
a) Hugo de Vries
b) Charles Robert Darwin
c) George Gaylord Simpson
d) Gregor Johann Mendel
Answer: c
84. Which is the most accepted concept of species?
a) Biological species concept
b) Evolutionary species concept
c) Polytypic species concept
d) Typological species concept
Answer: d
85. The process of formation of one or more new species from an existing species is called ______
a) Speciation
b) Saltation
c) Mutation
d) Radiation
Answer: a
86. The local population of a particular area is known by a term called ______
a) Locals
b) Race
c) Villagers
d) Demes
Answer: d
Hardy-Weinberg Principle MCQ and Answers
87.. Which of the following is not included in natural selection?
a) Stabilizing selection
b) Directional selection
c) Disruptive selection
d) Technical selection
Answer: d
88. Which of the following are properties of stabilizing selection?
a) Operates in a constant environment
b) Mean value changes
c) Peak gets lower and wider
d) Favors the complex phenotype
Answer: a
89. Mortality in babies is an example of ______
a) Disruptive selection
b) Directional selection
c) Stabilizing selection
d) Abortion selection
Answer: c
90. Directional selection is also known as ______
a) Position selection
b) Progressive selection
c) Retrogressive selection
d) Main selection
Answer: b
91. What happens during disruptive selection?
a) Three peaks are formed
b) Extreme value gets rejected
c) Average value gets selected
d) Members of both extreme are selected
Answer: d
92. How many peaks are there in the disruptive selection?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) No peaks
Answer: b
93. Marine mollusca is also known as _____
a) Limpets
b) Crabs
c) Puppets
d) Shrews
Answer: a
94. How does shell pattern in limpets show disruptive selection?
a) The shell pattern is yellowish and discontinuous
b) Light-colored limpets were preyed
c) Tan colored limpets were preyed
d) Intermediate colored limpets were preyed
Answer: d
95. Which of the following does not belong to the Hardy Weinberg principle?
a) Frequency remained fixed through generations
b) Used algebraic equations
c) Allele frequency varies from species
d) Gene pool remains a constant
Answer: c
96. It is known that the total sum of all the frequencies of the allele is _____
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
Answer: a
97. Which of the following represents the Hardy Weinberg equation?
a) p2 + q2 = 1
b) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
c) p2 + q2 = 0
d) (p2 + q2)2 = 1
Answer: b
98. The notation p and q of the Hardy Weinberg equation represent ________ of a diploid organism.
a) frequency of allele p
b) frequency of only allele A
c) frequency of the only allele a
d) frequency of allele A and a
Answer: d
99. How many factors affect the Hardy Weinberg principle?
a) Six
b) Four
c) Seven
d) Five
Answer: d
100. Which of the following does not belong to factors affecting the Hardy Weinberg principle?
a) Gene migration
b) Genetic drift
c) Genetic drop
d) Mutation
Answer: c
101. The process when some species migrate from the original to a new place, which in turn changes the allele frequency is called ______
a) Gene drift
b) Gene migration
c) Gene travel
d) Genetic recombination
Answer: b
102. Gene drift occurs when gene migration occurs ______
a) by chance
b) spontaneously
c) slowly
d) due to disaster
Answer: a
103. Which is the correct statement regarding Founder effect?
a) Named after the scientist John Founder
b) No large change in frequency
c) The old population become founders
d) Formation of new species
Answer: d
104. What results in the formation of new phenotypes?
a) Pre-existing helpful mutations
b) Post-existing helpful mutations
c) Pre-existing disadvantageous mutations
d) Post-existing advantageous mutations
Answer: a
A Brief Account of Evolution of Plants MCQ and Answers
105. Blue-green algae originated about ______ years ago.
a) 1.5 billion
b) 2.5 billion
c) 3.5 billion
d) 4 billion
Answer: a
106. What occurred during the Cambrian period of plant evolution?
a) Single-celled bacteria evolved in the sea
b) Blue-green algae evolved in the sea
c) Marine multicellular algae evolved
d) Unicellular plants evolved
Answer: c
107. Marine plants were abundant during which period?
a) Cambrian
b) Ordovician
c) Silurian
d) Permian
Answer: b
108. Bryophytes belonged to _______ ancestral chain.
a) Diphyte
b) Tracheophyte
c) Monophyte
d) Chlorophyte
Answer: d
109. Which of the following does not belong to tracheophyte ancestors?
a) Herbaceous lycopods
b) Arborescent lycopods
c) Sphenopsids
d) Zosterophyllum
Answer: c
110. Origin of first seed plants occurred during which period?
a) Carboniferous
b) Permian
c) Silurian
d) Cambrian
Answer: a
111. It was during the Cretaceous period when ______ appeared.
a) Gymnosperms
b) Monocots
c) Dicots
d) Angiosperms
Answer: d
112. Rise of monocots occurred during which epoch?
a) Pliocene
b) Oligocene
c) Eocene
d) Miocene
Answer: b
113. Increase of herbs and grasses occurred _______ years ago.
a) Two lakhs
b) Six lakhs
c) Seven lakhs
d) One crore
Answer: c
A Brief Account of Evolution of Animals MCQ and Answers
114. Invertebrates were formed and active about _______ million years ago.
a) 350
b) 500
c) 320
d) 200
Answer: b
115. The animals which evolved into the first amphibian that lived on both land and water, were _____
a) Jawless fish
b) Lobefin
c) Ichthyosaurs
d) Shrew
Answer: b
116. Which of these are correct regarding the evolution of animals?
a) Lobefins were ancestors of modern-day frogs and salamanders
b) Reptiles evolved into amphibians
c) Reptiles lay thin-shelled eggs
d) Reptiles of same shapes and sizes evolved
Answer: a
117. The appearance of first amphibians was during the period of ______
a) Ordovician
b) Louis Pasteur
c) Cambrian
d) Devonian
Answer: d
118. Which of the following did not originate during the Triassic period?
a) Oviparous prototheria
b) Mammals
c) Dinosaurs
d) Apes
Answer: d
119. Evolution of toothed birds occurred about ______ crore years ago.
a) 5.4 – 5.9
b) 5 – 6
c) 3.5
d) 7.1
Answer: a
120. What occurred during the Cretaceous period of animal evolution?
a) Dinosaurs evolved
b) Extinction of dinosaurs
c) Evolution of primitive birds
d) Modern birds disappeared
Answer: b
121. What evolved during Oligocene epoch of animal evolution?
a) Anthropoid apes
b) Humans
c) Birds
d) Mammals
Answer: a
122. Humans appeared during which epoch?
a) Holocene
b) Pleistocene
c) Pliocene
d) Miocene
Answer: b
Origin and Evolution of Man MCQ and Answers
123. Man belongs to the super family ______
a) Hominidae
b) Hominoidae
c) Primates
d) Mammalia
Answer: b
124. Who called humans as Homo sapiens wiseman?
a) Carolus Linnaeus
b) Hugo de Vries
c) Joseph Walter
d) Charles Darwin
Answer: a
125. Huxley explained origin of man in his book _______
a) the man’s place in world
b) the man’s place in earth
c) the man’s place in nature
d) the man’s place in universe
Answer: c
126. What did Darwin explain in his book “The descent of man”?
a) Ancestry of man
b) Evolution of organism
c) Origin of life
d) Production of man
Answer: a
127. Primates originated during which era?
a) Mesozoic
b) Cenozoic
c) Paleozoic
d) Azoic
Answer: b
128. The first real primates were _______
a) elephant shrews
b) tree shrews
c) monkey shrews
d) ape shrews
Answer: b
129. Humans, apes and monkeys belongs to ______
a) Anthropoids
b) Prosimians
c) Permian
d) Shrews
Answer: a
130. Rhesus monkey belongs to _______
a) new world monkeys
b) old world monkeys
c) parallel world monkeys
d) future world monkeys
Answer: b
131. New world monkey evolved from _______
a) South and Middle America
b) North and Middle East
c) South Africa
d) Asia
Answer: a
132. Which of the following is not among the types of apes?
a) Chimpanzee
b) Monkey
c) Gorilla
d) Orangutan
Answer: b
133. Which ape is closely related to the man?
a) Orangutan
b) Gorilla
c) Gibbon
d) Chimpanzee
Answer: d
134. According to organic evolution, which ape is closely related to the man?
a) Monkey
b) Gorilla
c) Orangutan
d) Sinanthropus
Answer: d
135. Gibbon belongs to the family _______
a) Pongideae
b) Hyalobatideae
c) Hominidae
d) Felidae
Answer: b
136. Which of the following is not a similarity between man and apes?
a) Tail absent
b) Erect posture
c) Smaller head, less cranial capacity
d) Grasping hands
Answer: c
137. Apes have _______ number of chromosomes.
a) 46
b) 48
c) 49
d) 45
Answer: b
138. Which of the chromosomes have the same banding pattern in between man and chimpanzee?
a) 3 and 6
b) 4 and 6
c) 4 and 4
d) 3 and 4
Answer: a
139. Apes have cranial capacity of only ______ c.c.
a) 660
b) 650
c) 610
d) 600
Answer: b
140. Apes have a _____ shaped jaw.
a) V
b) U
c) D
d) W
Answer: b
141. What is another name of human evolution?
a) Neogenesis
b) Anthropogenesis
c) Metagenesis
d) Fossilizes
Answer: b
142. Propliopithecus originated in _____ epoch.
a) Oligocene
b) Miocene
c) Pliocene
d) Azaacene
Answer: a
143. Who was known as Miocene apes?
a) Proconsul
b) Agyptopithecus
c) Ramapithecus
d) Dryopithecus
Answer: b
144. Who discovered Dryopithecus and Kenyapithecus?
a) Leakey
b) Lewis
c) Joseph
d) Sam
Answer: a
145. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Dryopithecus?
a) Semi erect posture
b) Evolution about 15-20 million years ago
c) Teeth larger and sharper
d) Meat eater
Answer: d
146. Ramapithecus and Shivapithecus were discovered from which place in India?
a) Himalayan hills
b) Shivalik hills
c) Nagaraj hills
d) Ganga hills
Answer: b
147. Who discovered Australopithecus?
a) Alexander Fleming
b) Lewis Jackson
c) Prof. Raymond dart
d) Gregor Mendel
Answer: c
148. Australopithecus was also known as the ______
a) first ape man
b) first human
c) human baby
d) humanoid
Answer: a
149. Which of the following is the correct statement regarding Australopithecus?
a) They lived in West African grasslands
b) They lived about 5-6 million years ago
c) They essentially ate fruits
d) They hunted with guns
Answer: c
150. Which fossil of the ape was known as the connecting link between apes and man?
a) Ramapithecus
b) Dryopithecus
c) Shivapithecus
d) Australopithecus
Answer: d
151. The common name of Homo habilis was ______
a) tool maker
b) food maker
c) power man
d) fearful animal
Answer: a
152. The cranial capacity of Homo habilis was _____ c.c.
a) 400-500
b) 900-1000
c) 650-800
d) 250-500
Answer: c
153. Which of the following is not among the characters of Homo habilis?
a) Their fossils were discovered by Dr. Leakey
b) They were found in 2 million years old rocks in Africa
c) Chin was absent
d) The dental formula was different from man
Answer: d
154. Who was known as the direct ancestors of homo sapiens?
a) Homo erectus
b) Homo erectus
c) Ramapithecus
d) Dryopithecus
Answer: a
155. Which of the following does not belong to Homo erectus?
a) Java man
b) Peking man
c) Heidelberg man
d) Cromagnon man
Answer: d
156. Who among Homo erectus used fire for hunting, protection, and cooking?
a) Java man
b) Cromagnon man
c) Peking man
d) Neanderthal man
Answer: a
157. Which is the correct statement among the following?
a) Cranial capacity was 500-800 c.c.
b) Origin and evolution were 1.5-2 million years ago
c) Chin was present
d) It was known as the unerect ape man
Answer: b
158. What is the scientific name of Peking man?
a) Homo erectus pekinensis
b) Homo erectus erectus
c) Homo erectus pekuins
d) Homo erectus sapiens
Answer: a
159. Who discovered the fossil of Peking man from China?
a) Eugene Dubois
b) W.C. Pei
c) Dr. Leakey
d) Mayer
Answer: b
160. Which of the following does not belong to Peking man’s characteristics?
a) Origin and evolution before 6 lakh years
b) They lived in huts
c) Cranial capacity was 850-1300 c.c.
d) Complete erect posture
Answer: b
161. Who discovered the fossil of Heidelberg man?
a) Ottoschotensack
b) Habbertensack
c) Fulhrott
d) Heidelinsack
Answer: a
162. Which of the following does not belong to Homo sapiens?
a) Neanderthal man
b) Cromagnon man
c) Modern man
d) Peking man
Answer: d
163. Who is known as the direct ancestor of modern man?
a) Cromagnon man
b) Java man
c) Heidelberg man
d) Neanderthal man
Answer: a
164. Ceremonial burial of dead body was started by _________
a) Neanderthal man
b) Modern man
c) Java man
d) Handy man
Answer: a
165. Which is the correct statement of Neanderthal man?
a) They lived in caves
b) Cranial capacity was 1000-1300 c.c.
c) They wore clothes of animal skin
d) High developed chin
Answer: c
166. The scientific name of Cromagnon man is ______
a) homo sapiens sapiens
b) homo sapiens fossilis
c) homo sapiens neanderthalensis
d) homo sapiens pekinensis
Answer: b
167. Who started the domestication of animals?
a) Java man
b) Neanderthal man
c) Heidelberg man
d) Cromagnon man
Answer: d
168. The cranial capacity of Modern man was ______ c.c.
a) 1300-1600
b) 1000-1100
c) 850-1300
d) 1300
Answer: a
169. Who started doing agriculture during human evolution?
a) Modern man
b) Farmer man
c) Peking man
d) Neanderthal man
Answer: a
170. Age of tools of stones and bones were known as ______
a) Mesozoic
b) Palaeolithic
c) Azoic
d) Mesolithic
Answer: b
171. Which does not belong to Bronze age?
a) Age of agriculture
b) Age of knowledge
c) Age of using clothes
d) Age of sleeping
Answer: d
172. The present age is called as _______
a) Metal age
b) Iron age
c) New age
d) Master age
Answer: b
173. The scientific name of “Man of future” is ______
a) Homo sapiens sapiens
b) Homo sapiens advances
c) Homo sapiens futuralis
d) Homo sapiens modernis
Answer: c
174. Which of the following is the correct character of “Man of future”?
a) Shorter and haired body
b) Tomb like head
c) Short brain
d) They had a fifth finger
Answer: b
175. What is known as the study of the evolutionary history of man?
a) Anthropology
b) Ethology
c) Cytology
d) Humanology
Answer: a
176. Which was the only ape that was found in India?
a) Gibbon
b) Gorilla
c) Orangutan
d) Chimpanzee
Answer: a
177. Which of the following does not belong to the races of human?
a) Caucasoid
b) Negroid
c) Mongoloid
d) Chinaloid
Answer: d
FAQs on Evolution
Q. What is evolution?
A: In brief, evolution is the process by which different types of living things arise from earlier forms. Over time, through the process of natural selection, organisms become better suited to their environment and can better survive and reproduce.
Q. How does evolution happen?
A: There are two main mechanisms of evolution: natural selection and genetic drift. Natural selection is the process by which organisms that are better adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce. Genetic drift is the process by which genes are randomly lost or gained over time, resulting in changes in the genetic makeup of a population.
Q. What is natural selection?
A: Natural selection is the process by which organisms that are better adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce. This process can lead to the development of new species.
Q. What is genetic drift?
A: Genetic drift is the process by which genes are randomly lost or gained over time, resulting in changes in the genetic makeup of a population. This process can lead to the development of new species.
Q. What is a species?
A: A species is a group of organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring.
Q. What is an adaptation?
A: An adaptation is a trait that helps an organism survive and reproduce in its environment.
Q. What is a fossil?
A: A fossil is the preserved remains or traces of an organism from the past.