200+ Evolution NEET Questions and Answers

Are you looking for Evolution Questions and Answers for NEET and other medical entrance examinations? If yes, these are some most important multiple choice questions and answers on NCERT Class-12 Biology, Chapter-7 (Evolution).

Here we composed these 200+ MCQs and Answers on Evolution after reading the chapter on Evolution from the NCERT book on Class 12 Biology. The questions are topics-wise and the students can relate the questions easily to the most important topics of this chapter.

Evolution NEET Questions with Answers

Origin of Life MCQ and Answers

1. Which theory attempts to explain to us the origin of the universe?

a) Explosion theory

b) Big-Bang theory

c) Black hole theory

d) Gamma theory

Answer: b


2. During evolution, the first cellular form of life appeared before how many million years?

a) 2000

b) 3000

c) 4000

d) 4500

Answer: a


3. Who demonstrated that life originated from pre-existing cells?

a) Louis Pasteur

b) Hugo de Vries

c) Charles Darwin

d) Stanley Miller

Answer: a


4. During the origin of life, which among the following was not found in free form?

a) Methane

b) Ammonia

c) Oxygen

d) Hydrogen

Answer: c


5. Miller in his experiment, synthesized simple amino- acid from ______

a) Methane, ammonia, oxygen, nitrogen

b) Hydrogen, methane, ammonia, water

c) Ammonia, methane, carbon dioxide, oxygen

d) Hydrogen, water, oxygen, helium

Answer: b


6. According to spontaneous generation, life originated _____

a) From microorganisms

b) From similar organisms

c) From air

d) Only spontaneously

Answer: d


7. Stellar distances are measured in _____

a) Kilometer

b) Light years

c) Per second

d) Chandrasekhar limit

Answer: b


8. Oxygen in the atmosphere has been formed by _____

a) Evaporation of water

b) Metabolism of microorganisms

c) Decaying organisms

d) Photosynthesis of blue-green algae

Answer: d


9. Which scientist in his Recapitulation theory stated that “ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny”?

a) Ernst Haeckel

b) Louis Pasteur

c) Charles Darwin

d) S.L. Miller

Answer: a


10. Stanley Miller performed his experiment to the explanation of the origin of life, in which year?

a) 1953

b) 1809

c) 1864

d) 1901

Answer: a


11. What is the most important element for the origin of life?

a) Water

b) Oxygen

c) Carbon

d) Nitrogen

Answer: a


12. The theory of spontaneous generation was rejected by which scientist?

a) Pasteur

b) Lavoisier

c) Kuhn

d) Lamarck

Answer: a


13. Which among the compounds were formed during the origin of life?

a) Urea, amino acid

b) Urea, nucleic acid

c) Proteins, nucleic acid

d) Proteins, amino acid

Answer: c


14. The name of the theory given by Louis Pasteur was called as _______

a) Cellular theory

b) Recapitulation theory

c) Germ theory of disease

d) Pasteurization

Answer: c


15. Life originated on earth about _____

a) 8 billion years ago

b) 5 billion years ago

c) 4 billion years ago

d) 3 billion years ago

Answer: c


16. What did Stanley Miller synthesize in his evolution experiment?

a) Virus

b) Protein

c) Cell

d) Amino acid

Answer: d


17. Nucleoproteins were the first substance to give a sign of ______

a) Species

b) Evolution

c) Life

d) Genes

Answer: c


18. Life first originated in ______

a) Earth

b) Air

c) Water

d) Soil

Answer: c


19. Miller and Urey had performed an experiment to prove the origin of life. They took gases H20 and CH4 along with _______

a) N2 and H2O

b) NH3 and H2

c) CH4 and N2

d) CO2 and NH3

Answer: b


19. At what temperature was the flask maintained in Miller’s experiment?

a) 900°C

b) 800°C

c) 700°C

d) 600°C

Answer: b


20. During the time of evolution, the possible energy sources were ______

a) Chlorophyll

b) Green plants

c) Bacteria

d) U.V rays and lightening

Answer: d


21. During which period, the origin of life take place?

a) Devonian

b) Cenozoic

c) Precambrian

d) Mesozoic

Answer: c


22. During which period, life didn’t exist?

a) Mesozoic

b) Cambrian period

c) Paleozoic period

d) Azoic period

Answer: d


23. During the origin of life, which of the following was absent in the atmosphere?

a) Methane

b) Oxygen

c) Hydrogen

d) Ammonia

Answer: b


24. “The organic compounds were the basis of life” were proved by?

a) Lamarck

b) Darwin

c) Mendel

d) Stanley Miller and Harold C. Urey

Answer: d


25. What is the time gap between the formation of Earth and the origin of life?

a) 1 billion years

b) 0.5 billion years

c) 4 billion years

d) 4.5 billion years

Answer: b


26. The primitive atmosphere was reducing since ______

a) Hydrogen atoms are very few

b) Hydrogen atoms were active and many in number

c) Helium atoms were more

d) Oxygen atoms were more

Answer: b


27. Which among the biologists, gave the most acceptable biochemical theory _____

a) Oparin

b) Urey

c) Darwin

d) Lamarck

Answer: a


28. Absence of oxygen on the earth, made the atmosphere reduce. But it later became oxidizing in nature due to the emergence of ________

a) Angiosperms

b) Gymnosperms

c) Eukaryotic algae

d) Cyanobacteria

Answer: d


29. Which scientist called the water of primitive sea as pre-biotic soup?

a) Haldane

b) Oparin

c) Mendel

d) Stevens

Answer: a


Evolution of Life Forms-A Theory MCQ and Answers

30. Which of the following was not included in theory of special creation?

a) All the living organisms that see today were created as such

b) The diversity was always the same since creation and will be the same in future

c) The earth is about 4000 years old

d) The solar system came from a massive body

Answer: d


31. Who supported the theory of special creation?

a) Father Suarez

b) Father Darwin

c) Lamarck

d) Abbe Lemaitre

Answer: a


32. _______ was the name of the ship in which Darwin sailed around the world.

a) H.S.S Beagle

b) H.M.S Beagle

c) H.P.S Beagle

d) H.M.S Eagle

Answer: b


33. ________ fitness was the fitness referred by Darwin for natural selection?

a) Reproductive

b) Health

c) Survival

d) Physical

Answer: a


34. The scientist who divided the whole world into six major biogeographical regions called realms is _______

a) Hugo de Vries

b) Charles Darwin

c) Alfred Russel Wallace

d) Mathew Morgan

Answer: c


35. Evolution is a ______ process.

a) quick

b) stochastic

c) slow

d) fast

Answer: b


36. It is said to believe that all the continents were present in the form of a single land mass called as ______

a) Pangaea

b) Globe

c) Echidna

d) Prion

Answer: b


37. Survival of fittest was the original idea of ________

a) Charles Darwin

b) Lamarck

c) Gregor Mendel

d) Herbert Spencer

Answer: d


38. The drawback of Darwinism was that it couldn’t explain _______

a) Variations

b) Large rate of production

c) Struggle for existence

d) Reproductive fitness

Answer: a


Evidences for Evolution MCQ and Answers

39. The industrial revolution phenomenon demonstrate _____

a) Gene mutation

b) Genetic drift

c) Natural selection

d) Migration

Answer: c


40. In the ancestry line of Tyrannosaurus, which ancestor is present?

a) Crocodile

b) Triceratops

c) Archaeopteryx

d) Brachiosaurus

Answer: d


41. In some animals, the same structures develop along different directions due to adaptations to different needs, this is called as _____

a) Divergent evolution

b) Convergent evolution

c) Parallel evolution

d) Saltation

Answer: a


42. Which among the following are examples of homologous organs?

a) Wings of butterfly and bird

b) Flippers of penguins and dolphins

c) Eye of octopus and mammals

d) Forelimbs of whales, bats, cheetah and humans

Answer: d


43. The fossils are evidences buried deep inside the soil; they can occur where _______

a) Animals are destroyed by natural disasters

b) Animals are buried and preserved by natural process

c) Animals are eaten by predators

d) Animals die themselves

Answer: b


44. What is the scientific name of moth that demonstrated industrial melanism?

a) Biston betularia

b) Biston formalia

c) Biston mothis

d) Periplaneta americana

Answer: a


45. Which among the following are the characteristics of lichens?

a) They can survive in polluted areas

b) They can eat insects

c) They can indicate industrial pollution

d) They can self-pollinate

Answer: c


46. Dinosaurs are ________

a) Not extinct

b) Extinct

c) Becoming extinct

d) Myths

Answer: b


47. Dinosaurs originated during the period _______

a) Triassic

b) Jurassic

c) Cretaceous

d) Cambrian

Answer: a


Adaptive Radiation MCQ and Answers

48. _______ was the island where Darwin visited and discovered adaptive radiation?

a) Archipelago

b) Galapagos

c) Port Blair

d) Lakshadweep

Answer: b


49. Which food habit of Darwin’s finches lead to the development of many other varieties?

a) Fruiteater

b) Cactus eater

c) Insect eater

d) Seedeater

Answer: d


50. Species which have diverged after origin from common ancestor giving rise to new species adapted to new habitats and ways of life is called as _______

a) Adaptive radiation

b) Divergent evolution

c) Convergent evolution

d) Mutation

Answer: a


51. _______ marsupials were taken as examples of adaptive radiation.

a) American

b) Australian

c) Indian

d) African

Answer: b


52. What do we call the process when more than one adaptive radiation occurs in a single geological place?

a) Divergent evolution

b) Convergent evolution

c) Saltation

d) Overproduction

Answer: b


53. Lemur is a placental mammal that resembles _______ of Australian marsupials.

a) Bobcat

b) Numbat

c) Spotted cuscus

d) Flying phalanger

Answer: c


54. Tasmanian wolf is an example of ________

a) Australian marsupial

b) Placental mammal

c) American marsupial

d) Placental wolves

Answer: a


55. Adaptive radiation does not confirm _______

a) Divergent evolution

b) Homology

c) Convergent evolution

d) Evolution of new forms

Answer: c


56. Which of the following is not an example of placental mammals?

a) Mole

b) Anteater

c) Mouse

d) Tasmanian tiger cat

Answer: d


57. Which of the following is a vestigial organ in animals?

a) Nictitating membrane

b) Scrotum

c) Tail

d) Eyelashes

Answer: a


Biological Evolution MCQ and Answers

58. _________ is the evolution from coacervates to simple cell structure.

a) Chemical evolution

b) Biological evolution

c) Organic evolution

d) Inorganic evolution

Answer: b


59. Which of the following is related to protobionts?

a) Large colloidal drop like structures

b) Formed from micro molecules

c) Do not absorb molecules from the atmosphere

d) Does not contain proteins, nucleic acids, etc.

Answer: a


60. Protobiont was formed by a cluster of ______

a) micro molecules

b) nucleic acids

c) lipids

d) macro molecules

Answer: d


61. What were the first sole living molecules according to Oparin?

a) Diploid

b) Coacervates

c) Mycoplasma

d) Bacteria

Answer: b


62. Who discovered proteinoid microspheres with a primitive membrane?

a) Oparin

b) Haldane

c) Fox

d) Thomas

Answer: c


63. Who among the scientist did not prove that RNA molecules have enzymatic activity?

a) Zaug

b) Thomas Cech

c) Altman

d) Oparin

Answer: d


64. Life originated millions of years ago as ________

a) protobionts

b) eobionts

c) coacervates

d) bacteria

Answer: b


65. What was the mode of respiration for the prokaryotes during biological evolution?

a) Aerobic

b) Anaerobic

c) Cellular

d) External

Answer: b


66. The organisms that perform chemosynthesis for survival are called _____

a) Chemoautotrophs

b) Chemoheterotrophs

c) Chemical organisms

d) Photoautotrophs

Answer: a


67. What was utilized by photoautotrophs during photosynthesis when H2O was absent?

a) HF

b) HCl

c) H2S

d) H2N2

Answer: c


68. Who is the author of the book “The Principle of population”?

a) Thomas Malthus

b) Charles Darwin

c) Hugo de Vries

d) Thomas Mathew

Answer: a


69. The two key concepts branching descent and natural selection belong to ______ theory of evolution.

a) Mendel

b) Darwinian

c) Lamarck

d) Miller

Answer: b


70. Lamarck was a _______ naturalist.

a) French

b) German

c) England

d) Latin

Answer: a


71. Use and disuse theory was given by _______ to prove biological evolution.

a) Ernst Haeckel

b) Louis Pasteur

c) Charles Darwin

d) Lamarck

Answer: d


72. Lamarck used _______ as examples of use and disuse theory.

a) Giraffes

b) Elephants

c) Ostriches

d) Lions

Answer: a


73. Which of the following were not among the basic concepts of Lamarckism?

a) Internal vital forces

b) Use and disuse of organs

c) Struggle for existence

d) Inheritance of acquired characters

Answer: c


74. During biological evolution, the first living organisms were _______

a) Autotrophs

b) Heterotrophs

c) Bacteria

d) Mycoplasma

Answer: b


75. Which among the following are not included in the concept of inheritance of acquired characters?

a) Melanism in the peppered moth

b) Absence of limbs in snakes

c) The long neck of giraffes

d) Retractile claws of carnivorous animals

Answer: a


76. From Lamarck’s theory, giraffes have long necks because ______

a) nature selected long trees

b) humans preferred only long-necked ones

c) of the sudden change of short to long necks

d) stretching of necks over many years by short-necked ones

Answer: d


77. Which of the following is correctly matched?

a) Darwin – Theory of myogenesis

b) Pasteur – Theory of pasteurization

c) Weismann – Theory of continuity of germplasm

d) Hugo de Vries – Use and disuse theory

Answer: c


Mechanism of Evolution MCQ and Answers

78. Hugo de Vries did an experiment on which plant to prove mutation theory?

a) Evening primrose

b) Morning primrose

c) Night primrose

d) Pea pant

Answer: a


79. Which of the following does not belong to Mutation theory?

a) It can appear in all direction

b) It is the raw material of evolution

c) It appears suddenly

d) It is a continuous process

Answer: d


80. _______ is termed as single-step large mutation.

a) Separation

b) Saltation

c) Anti mutation

d) Infinite mutation

Answer: b


81. Which of the following point favor mutation theory?

a) Mutations are not very common

b) Mutations are mostly recessive

c) Mutation give rise to new varieties

d) Evening primrose is not a normal plant

Answer: c


82. Mutation theory couldn’t explain _______

a) development of mimicry

b) saltation

c) variations

d) chromosomes of flowers

Answer: a


83. Who proposed the Evolutionary species concept?

a) Hugo de Vries

b) Charles Robert Darwin

c) George Gaylord Simpson

d) Gregor Johann Mendel

Answer: c


84. Which is the most accepted concept of species?

a) Biological species concept

b) Evolutionary species concept

c) Polytypic species concept

d) Typological species concept

Answer: d


85. The process of formation of one or more new species from an existing species is called ______

a) Speciation

b) Saltation

c) Mutation

d) Radiation

Answer: a


86. The local population of a particular area is known by a term called ______

a) Locals

b) Race

c) Villagers

d) Demes

Answer: d


Hardy-Weinberg Principle MCQ and Answers

87.. Which of the following is not included in natural selection?

a) Stabilizing selection

b) Directional selection

c) Disruptive selection

d) Technical selection

Answer: d


88. Which of the following are properties of stabilizing selection?

a) Operates in a constant environment

b) Mean value changes

c) Peak gets lower and wider

d) Favors the complex phenotype

Answer: a


89. Mortality in babies is an example of ______

a) Disruptive selection

b) Directional selection

c) Stabilizing selection

d) Abortion selection

Answer: c


90. Directional selection is also known as ______

a) Position selection

b) Progressive selection

c) Retrogressive selection

d) Main selection

Answer: b


91. What happens during disruptive selection?

a) Three peaks are formed

b) Extreme value gets rejected

c) Average value gets selected

d) Members of both extreme are selected

Answer: d


92. How many peaks are there in the disruptive selection?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) No peaks

Answer: b


93. Marine mollusca is also known as _____

a) Limpets

b) Crabs

c) Puppets

d) Shrews

Answer: a


94. How does shell pattern in limpets show disruptive selection?

a) The shell pattern is yellowish and discontinuous

b) Light-colored limpets were preyed

c) Tan colored limpets were preyed

d) Intermediate colored limpets were preyed

Answer: d


95. Which of the following does not belong to the Hardy Weinberg principle?

a) Frequency remained fixed through generations

b) Used algebraic equations

c) Allele frequency varies from species

d) Gene pool remains a constant

Answer: c


96. It is known that the total sum of all the frequencies of the allele is _____

a) one

b) two

c) three

d) four

Answer: a


97. Which of the following represents the Hardy Weinberg equation?

a) p2 + q2 = 1

b) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1

c) p2 + q2 = 0

d) (p2 + q2)2 = 1

Answer: b


98. The notation p and q of the Hardy Weinberg equation represent ________ of a diploid organism.

a) frequency of allele p

b) frequency of only allele A

c) frequency of the only allele a

d) frequency of allele A and a

Answer: d


99. How many factors affect the Hardy Weinberg principle?

a) Six

b) Four

c) Seven

d) Five

Answer: d


100. Which of the following does not belong to factors affecting the Hardy Weinberg principle?

a) Gene migration

b) Genetic drift

c) Genetic drop

d) Mutation

Answer: c


101. The process when some species migrate from the original to a new place, which in turn changes the allele frequency is called ______

a) Gene drift

b) Gene migration

c) Gene travel

d) Genetic recombination

Answer: b


102. Gene drift occurs when gene migration occurs ______

a) by chance

b) spontaneously

c) slowly

d) due to disaster

Answer: a


103. Which is the correct statement regarding Founder effect?

a) Named after the scientist John Founder

b) No large change in frequency

c) The old population become founders

d) Formation of new species

Answer: d


104. What results in the formation of new phenotypes?

a) Pre-existing helpful mutations

b) Post-existing helpful mutations

c) Pre-existing disadvantageous mutations

d) Post-existing advantageous mutations

Answer: a


A Brief Account of Evolution of Plants MCQ and Answers

105. Blue-green algae originated about ______ years ago.

a) 1.5 billion

b) 2.5 billion

c) 3.5 billion

d) 4 billion

Answer: a


106. What occurred during the Cambrian period of plant evolution?

a) Single-celled bacteria evolved in the sea

b) Blue-green algae evolved in the sea

c) Marine multicellular algae evolved

d) Unicellular plants evolved

Answer: c


107. Marine plants were abundant during which period?

a) Cambrian

b) Ordovician

c) Silurian

d) Permian

Answer: b


108. Bryophytes belonged to _______ ancestral chain.

a) Diphyte

b) Tracheophyte

c) Monophyte

d) Chlorophyte

Answer: d


109. Which of the following does not belong to tracheophyte ancestors?

a) Herbaceous lycopods

b) Arborescent lycopods

c) Sphenopsids

d) Zosterophyllum

Answer: c


110. Origin of first seed plants occurred during which period?

a) Carboniferous

b) Permian

c) Silurian

d) Cambrian

Answer: a


111. It was during the Cretaceous period when ______ appeared.

a) Gymnosperms

b) Monocots

c) Dicots

d) Angiosperms

Answer: d


112. Rise of monocots occurred during which epoch?

a) Pliocene

b) Oligocene

c) Eocene

d) Miocene

Answer: b


113. Increase of herbs and grasses occurred _______ years ago.

a) Two lakhs

b) Six lakhs

c) Seven lakhs

d) One crore

Answer: c


A Brief Account of Evolution of Animals MCQ and Answers

114. Invertebrates were formed and active about _______ million years ago.

a) 350

b) 500

c) 320

d) 200

Answer: b


115. The animals which evolved into the first amphibian that lived on both land and water, were _____

a) Jawless fish

b) Lobefin

c) Ichthyosaurs

d) Shrew

Answer: b


116. Which of these are correct regarding the evolution of animals?

a) Lobefins were ancestors of modern-day frogs and salamanders

b) Reptiles evolved into amphibians

c) Reptiles lay thin-shelled eggs

d) Reptiles of same shapes and sizes evolved

Answer: a


117. The appearance of first amphibians was during the period of ______

a) Ordovician

b) Louis Pasteur

c) Cambrian

d) Devonian

Answer: d


118. Which of the following did not originate during the Triassic period?

a) Oviparous prototheria

b) Mammals

c) Dinosaurs

d) Apes

Answer: d


119. Evolution of toothed birds occurred about ______ crore years ago.

a) 5.4 – 5.9

b) 5 – 6

c) 3.5

d) 7.1

Answer: a


120. What occurred during the Cretaceous period of animal evolution?

a) Dinosaurs evolved

b) Extinction of dinosaurs

c) Evolution of primitive birds

d) Modern birds disappeared

Answer: b


121. What evolved during Oligocene epoch of animal evolution?

a) Anthropoid apes

b) Humans

c) Birds

d) Mammals

Answer: a


122. Humans appeared during which epoch?

a) Holocene

b) Pleistocene

c) Pliocene

d) Miocene

Answer: b


Origin and Evolution of Man MCQ and Answers

123. Man belongs to the super family ______

a) Hominidae

b) Hominoidae

c) Primates

d) Mammalia

Answer: b


124. Who called humans as Homo sapiens wiseman?

a) Carolus Linnaeus

b) Hugo de Vries

c) Joseph Walter

d) Charles Darwin

Answer: a


125. Huxley explained origin of man in his book _______

a) the man’s place in world

b) the man’s place in earth

c) the man’s place in nature

d) the man’s place in universe

Answer: c


126. What did Darwin explain in his book “The descent of man”?

a) Ancestry of man

b) Evolution of organism

c) Origin of life

d) Production of man

Answer: a


127. Primates originated during which era?

a) Mesozoic

b) Cenozoic

c) Paleozoic

d) Azoic

Answer: b


128. The first real primates were _______

a) elephant shrews

b) tree shrews

c) monkey shrews

d) ape shrews

Answer: b


129. Humans, apes and monkeys belongs to ______

a) Anthropoids

b) Prosimians

c) Permian

d) Shrews

Answer: a


130. Rhesus monkey belongs to _______

a) new world monkeys

b) old world monkeys

c) parallel world monkeys

d) future world monkeys

Answer: b


131. New world monkey evolved from _______

a) South and Middle America

b) North and Middle East

c) South Africa

d) Asia

Answer: a


132. Which of the following is not among the types of apes?

a) Chimpanzee

b) Monkey

c) Gorilla

d) Orangutan

Answer: b


133. Which ape is closely related to the man?

a) Orangutan

b) Gorilla

c) Gibbon

d) Chimpanzee

Answer: d


134. According to organic evolution, which ape is closely related to the man?

a) Monkey

b) Gorilla

c) Orangutan

d) Sinanthropus

Answer: d


135. Gibbon belongs to the family _______

a) Pongideae

b) Hyalobatideae

c) Hominidae

d) Felidae

Answer: b


136. Which of the following is not a similarity between man and apes?

a) Tail absent

b) Erect posture

c) Smaller head, less cranial capacity

d) Grasping hands

Answer: c


137. Apes have _______ number of chromosomes.

a) 46

b) 48

c) 49

d) 45

Answer: b


138. Which of the chromosomes have the same banding pattern in between man and chimpanzee?

a) 3 and 6

b) 4 and 6

c) 4 and 4

d) 3 and 4

Answer: a


139. Apes have cranial capacity of only ______ c.c.

a) 660

b) 650

c) 610

d) 600

Answer: b


140. Apes have a _____ shaped jaw.

a) V

b) U

c) D

d) W

Answer: b


141. What is another name of human evolution?

a) Neogenesis

b) Anthropogenesis

c) Metagenesis

d) Fossilizes

Answer: b


142. Propliopithecus originated in _____ epoch.

a) Oligocene

b) Miocene

c) Pliocene

d) Azaacene

Answer: a


143. Who was known as Miocene apes?

a) Proconsul

b) Agyptopithecus

c) Ramapithecus

d) Dryopithecus

Answer: b


144. Who discovered Dryopithecus and Kenyapithecus?

a) Leakey

b) Lewis

c) Joseph

d) Sam

Answer: a


145. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Dryopithecus?

a) Semi erect posture

b) Evolution about 15-20 million years ago

c) Teeth larger and sharper

d) Meat eater

Answer: d


146. Ramapithecus and Shivapithecus were discovered from which place in India?

a) Himalayan hills

b) Shivalik hills

c) Nagaraj hills

d) Ganga hills

Answer: b


147. Who discovered Australopithecus?

a) Alexander Fleming

b) Lewis Jackson

c) Prof. Raymond dart

d) Gregor Mendel

Answer: c


148. Australopithecus was also known as the ______

a) first ape man

b) first human

c) human baby

d) humanoid

Answer: a


149. Which of the following is the correct statement regarding Australopithecus?

a) They lived in West African grasslands

b) They lived about 5-6 million years ago

c) They essentially ate fruits

d) They hunted with guns

Answer: c


150. Which fossil of the ape was known as the connecting link between apes and man?

a) Ramapithecus

b) Dryopithecus

c) Shivapithecus

d) Australopithecus

Answer: d


151. The common name of Homo habilis was ______

a) tool maker

b) food maker

c) power man

d) fearful animal

Answer: a


152. The cranial capacity of Homo habilis was _____ c.c.

a) 400-500

b) 900-1000

c) 650-800

d) 250-500

Answer: c


153. Which of the following is not among the characters of Homo habilis?

a) Their fossils were discovered by Dr. Leakey

b) They were found in 2 million years old rocks in Africa

c) Chin was absent

d) The dental formula was different from man

Answer: d


154. Who was known as the direct ancestors of homo sapiens?

a) Homo erectus

b) Homo erectus

c) Ramapithecus

d) Dryopithecus

Answer: a


155. Which of the following does not belong to Homo erectus?

a) Java man

b) Peking man

c) Heidelberg man

d) Cromagnon man

Answer: d


156. Who among Homo erectus used fire for hunting, protection, and cooking?

a) Java man

b) Cromagnon man

c) Peking man

d) Neanderthal man

Answer: a


157. Which is the correct statement among the following?

a) Cranial capacity was 500-800 c.c.

b) Origin and evolution were 1.5-2 million years ago

c) Chin was present

d) It was known as the unerect ape man

Answer: b


158. What is the scientific name of Peking man?

a) Homo erectus pekinensis

b) Homo erectus erectus

c) Homo erectus pekuins

d) Homo erectus sapiens

Answer: a


159. Who discovered the fossil of Peking man from China?

a) Eugene Dubois

b) W.C. Pei

c) Dr. Leakey

d) Mayer

Answer: b


160. Which of the following does not belong to Peking man’s characteristics?

a) Origin and evolution before 6 lakh years

b) They lived in huts

c) Cranial capacity was 850-1300 c.c.

d) Complete erect posture

Answer: b


161. Who discovered the fossil of Heidelberg man?

a) Ottoschotensack

b) Habbertensack

c) Fulhrott

d) Heidelinsack

Answer: a


162. Which of the following does not belong to Homo sapiens?

a) Neanderthal man

b) Cromagnon man

c) Modern man

d) Peking man

Answer: d


163. Who is known as the direct ancestor of modern man?

a) Cromagnon man

b) Java man

c) Heidelberg man

d) Neanderthal man

Answer: a


164. Ceremonial burial of dead body was started by _________

a) Neanderthal man

b) Modern man

c) Java man

d) Handy man

Answer: a


165. Which is the correct statement of Neanderthal man?

a) They lived in caves

b) Cranial capacity was 1000-1300 c.c.

c) They wore clothes of animal skin

d) High developed chin

Answer: c


166. The scientific name of Cromagnon man is ______

a) homo sapiens sapiens

b) homo sapiens fossilis

c) homo sapiens neanderthalensis

d) homo sapiens pekinensis

Answer: b


167. Who started the domestication of animals?

a) Java man

b) Neanderthal man

c) Heidelberg man

d) Cromagnon man

Answer: d


168. The cranial capacity of Modern man was ______ c.c.

a) 1300-1600

b) 1000-1100

c) 850-1300

d) 1300

Answer: a


169. Who started doing agriculture during human evolution?

a) Modern man

b) Farmer man

c) Peking man

d) Neanderthal man

Answer: a


170. Age of tools of stones and bones were known as ______

a) Mesozoic

b) Palaeolithic

c) Azoic

d) Mesolithic

Answer: b


171. Which does not belong to Bronze age?

a) Age of agriculture

b) Age of knowledge

c) Age of using clothes

d) Age of sleeping

Answer: d


172. The present age is called as _______

a) Metal age

b) Iron age

c) New age

d) Master age

Answer: b


173. The scientific name of “Man of future” is ______

a) Homo sapiens sapiens

b) Homo sapiens advances

c) Homo sapiens futuralis

d) Homo sapiens modernis

Answer: c


174. Which of the following is the correct character of “Man of future”?

a) Shorter and haired body

b) Tomb like head

c) Short brain

d) They had a fifth finger

Answer: b


175. What is known as the study of the evolutionary history of man?

a) Anthropology

b) Ethology

c) Cytology

d) Humanology

Answer: a


176. Which was the only ape that was found in India?

a) Gibbon

b) Gorilla

c) Orangutan

d) Chimpanzee

Answer: a


177. Which of the following does not belong to the races of human?

a) Caucasoid

b) Negroid

c) Mongoloid

d) Chinaloid

Answer: d


FAQs on Evolution

Q. What is evolution?

A: In brief, evolution is the process by which different types of living things arise from earlier forms. Over time, through the process of natural selection, organisms become better suited to their environment and can better survive and reproduce.

Q. How does evolution happen?

A: There are two main mechanisms of evolution: natural selection and genetic drift. Natural selection is the process by which organisms that are better adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce. Genetic drift is the process by which genes are randomly lost or gained over time, resulting in changes in the genetic makeup of a population.

Q. What is natural selection?

A: Natural selection is the process by which organisms that are better adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce. This process can lead to the development of new species.

Q. What is genetic drift?

A: Genetic drift is the process by which genes are randomly lost or gained over time, resulting in changes in the genetic makeup of a population. This process can lead to the development of new species.

Q. What is a species?

A: A species is a group of organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring.

Q. What is an adaptation?

A: An adaptation is a trait that helps an organism survive and reproduce in its environment.

Q. What is a fossil?

A: A fossil is the preserved remains or traces of an organism from the past.

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