300+ Human Health And Disease MCQs and Answers

Are you looking for Human Health And Disease MCQs and Answers for NEET and other medical entrance examinations? If yes, these are some most important multiple choice questions and answers on NCERT Class-12 Biology, Chapter-8 (Human Health and Disease).

Here we composed these 300+ Human Health And Disease MCQs and Answers after reading the chapter on Human Health and Disease from the NCERT book on Class 12 Biology. The questions are topics-wise and the students can relate the questions easily to the most important topics of this chapter.

Human Health And Disease MCQs and Answers

Venereal Diseases in Humans MCQs

1. The site of infection in case of Gonorrhoea can be all except _______

a) Throat

b) Vagina

c) penis

d) liver

Answer: d


2. Which of the following disease is caused by a protozoan?

a) Trichomoniasis

b) Gonorrhoea

c) Genital Warts

d) Chancroid

Answer: a


3. The most common site of infection in female suffering from chlamydiasis is _______

a) Urethra

b) Ovaries

c) Cervix

d) Anus

Answer: c


4. Which of the following sexually transmitted disease is caused by yeast?

a) Enterobiasis

b) Syphilis

c) Scabies

d) Candidiasis

Answer: d


5. Urinogenital tract infection in males accompanied by yellow discharge, burning feeling on passing urine, fever and headache is ______

a) Gonorrhoea

b) Syphilis

c) Genital Herpes

d) Chancroid

Answer: a


6. Sexually Transmitted disease affecting both male and female genitals which often damages the eyes of babies born to infected mothers is _________

a) AIDS

b) Genital Herpes

c) Syphilis

d) Gonorrhoea

Answer: d


7. Treponema pallidum is responsible for causing which of the following STD’s?

a) Syphilis

b) Gonorrhoea

c) Chancroid

d) Herpes

Answer: a


8. What is the full form of VDRL?

a) Venereal Diseases Resource Laboratory

b) Venereal Disease Research Laboratory

c) Virus Disorder Running Lab

d) Viral Diseases Resource Laboratory

Answer: b


9. Which of the following is a venereal disease, caused by a virus and can get transmitted by blood contact also?

a) Syphilis

b) Hepatitis-B

c) Chancroid

d) Trichomoniasis

Answer: b


10. In males, urethritis is the principal result of ________

a) Gonorrhoea

b) Syphilis

c) Chlamydia

d) Chancroid

Answer: c


11. Which of the following is not a Sexually Transmitted Disease?

a) Muscular Dystrophy

b) Syphilis

c) Chancroid

d) Trichomoniasis

Answer: a


12. Which of the following symptom can be related to the tertiary stage of syphilis?

a) The appearance of Chancre and rashes

b) When signs of organ degeneration appear

c) Very High fever and sore throat

d) Joint and muscle pain

Answer: b


13. What is the full form of PID?

a) Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

b) Pneumonia Infectious Disease

c) Pseudo Inflammatory Disorder

d) Peritoneum Infectious Disorder

Answer: a


14. Which of the following pathogen can pass from mother to infant during childbirth?

a) Trypanosoma

b) Leishmania

c) Chlamydia

d) Trichomonas

Answer: c


15. Which of the following set of diseases include all the sexually transmitted diseases?

a) Tuberculosis, Gonorrhoea, Chlamydia

b) AIDS, Hepatitis-B, Trichomoniasis

c) SARS, Hepatitis-A, Genital Herpes

d) Hepatitis-B, Syphilis, SARS

Answer: b


16. Which of the following viruses cause Genital Warts?

a) Human Immunodeficiency Virus

b) Corona Virus

c) Hepatitis-A virus

d) Human Papilloma Virus

Answer: d


17. The appearance of the chancre, rashes all over the body are symptoms of which of the following disease?

a) Gonorrhoea

b) Small Pox

c) Syphilis

d) AIDS

Answer: c


18. What is meant by the incubation period of a pathogen?

a) The period between exposure to an infection and the appearance of the first symptoms

b) The period between the appearance of first symptoms until the death of the pathogen

c) The period between exposure of a pathogen to the death of the pathogen

d) The period between the infection and death of an organism

Answer: a


19. Chancroid is caused by __________

a) Trichomonas

b) Treponema

c) Haemophilus

d) Neisseria

Answer: c


20. Incubation period of Chlamydia trachomatis is _________

a) 2-7 days

b) 7-15 days

c) 4-6 weeks

d) 1-3 weeks

Answer: d


21. Which of the following STDs has a cure?

a) AIDS

b) Chalamydiasis

c) Genital herpes

d) Hepatitis-B

Answer: b


22. Which age group among the following are the most vulnerable to STDs?

a) 15-24 years

b) 65-95 years

c) 7-15 years

d) 30-40 years

Answer: a


23. Which of the following is an oncogenic pathogen?

a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

b) Human papilloma virus

c) Treponema pallidum

d) Trichomonas vaginalis

Answer: b


24. Which of the following is not used for the treatment of Genital Warts?

a) Cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen

b) Application of podophyllin

c) Azidothymidine

d) Alpha interferon

Answer: c

Innate and Acquired Immunity MCQs

25. Which of the following barriers does not come under innate immunity?

a) Physical barrier

b) Physiological barrier

c) Complex barrier

d) Cellular barrier

Answer: c


26. Which of the following barriers are considered to be the first line of defence in our body?

a) Physical and Physiological barriers

b) Physiological and Cellular barriers

c) Cellular and Cytokine barriers

d) Physical and Cellular barriers

Answer: a


27. Innate immunity is also called as ________

a) Specific immunity

b) Inborn immunity

c) Acquired immunity

d) Adapted immunity

Answer: b


28. How many lines of defence are present in our body?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

Answer: c


29. Acquired Immunity is not called as ___________

a) Specific Immunity

b) Adapted Immunity

c) Humoral Immunity

d) Non-specific Immunity

Answer: d


30. Which of the following is not an Anatomic barrier?

a) Skin

b) Oil and sweat

c) Nostril hair

d) Mucus and cilia

Answer: b


31. Lysozyme is _________

a) Antiviral

b) Antiprotozoal

c) Antibacterial

d) Antifungal

Answer: c


32. What is the full form of PMNL?

a) Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes

b) Pinacocytes Mono-nuclear lymphocytes

c) Polynomial lymphocytes

d) Pinacoderm Mono-nuclear lymphocytes

Answer: a


33. Which of the following are not the Phagocytes of innate immunity?

a) Neutrophils

b) Macrophages

c) RBCs

d) Monocytes

Answer: c


34. Number of proteins belonging to the complementary system is _______

a) Ten

b) Sixty

c) Forty-Four

d) Thirty

Answer: d


35. In innate immunity, complement system functions through ________

a) Alternate pathway

b) Classical pathway

c) Heightened pathway

d) Anatomical pathway

Answer: a


36. Interferons are which type of barriers?

a) Physical barriers

b) Physiological barriers

c) Cellular barriers

d) Cytokine barriers

Answer: d


37. Which of the following response is not included in Acquired immunity?

a) Primary Response

b) Tertiary Response

c) Secondary Response

d) Anamnestic Response

Answer: b


38. In Acquired immunity, complement system functions through___________

a) Classical pathway

b) Alternate pathway

c) Heightened pathway

d) Anatomical pathway

Answer: a


39. Which of the following Cellular barriers are involved in Inflammatory reactions?

a) Neutrophils

b) Basophils

c) Eosinophils

d) Monocytes

Answer: b

Humoral Immunity MCQs

40. What is the full form of AMI?

a) Antibody-Mediated Immunity

b) Antigen Mediated Immunity

c) Automated Immunity

d) Acquired Mediated Immunity

Answer: a


41. which of the following immunities is also called as Antibody-Mediated Immunity?

a) Acquired Immunity

b) Cell-Mediated Immunity

c) Humoral Immunity

d) Innate Immunity

Answer: c


42. Number of antibodies produced per day during an infection can be _______

a) 2 trillion

b) 20 trillion

c) 200 trillion

d) 2000 trillion

Answer: b


43. An antibody is represented by which of the following formula?

a) H2L2

b) C1C2

c) A1A2

d) H1L2

Answer: a


44. Antigenic determinants are ___________

a) Large and complex molecules

b) Proteins or carbohydrates

c) Specific products of pathogen

d) Recognisable sites over antigens

Answer: d


45. Which of the following set of antibodies are responsible for providing Natural Passive Immunity to the foetus?

a) IgD and IgE

b) IgM and IgA

c) IgA and IgE

d) IgG and IgA

Answer: d


46. Which of the following is the largest antibody?

a) IgA

b) IgG

c) IgM

d) IgE

Answer: c


47. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding IgM antibody?

a) Responsible for the initial activation of B-cells

b) It is an effective agglutinator of antigen

c) It makes up 7-10% of our total antibodies

d) It is the last antibody to be released during the primary response

Answer: d


48. Which of the following is not the function of an antibody?

a) Lysis

b) Neutralisation

c) Assimilation

d) Precipitation

Answer: c


49. Which of the following antibodies shows Opsonisation?

a) IgG

b) IgE

c) IgD

d) IgA

Answer: a


50. Which region of an antibody is also called a ‘Fragment of Crystallization’?

a) Fc region

b) Fab region

c) CC region

d) NN region

Answer: a


51. What is the approximate weight of Heavy and Light chains respectively?

a) 50,000 Da and 25,000 Da

b) 25,000 Da and 50,000 Da

c) 75,000 Da and 25,000 Da

d) 75,000 Da and 50,000 Da

Answer: a


52. Which region of an antibody is also called as ‘Variable Region’?

a) Fc region

b) Fab region

c) NN region

d) CC region

Answer: b


53. Which of the following antibodies constitute the largest proportion of the total antibodies present?

a) IgA

b) IgM

c) IgG

d) IgE

Answer: c


54. Which of the following is the smallest antibody?

a) IgG

b) IgA

c) IgD

d) IgE

Answer: a


55. Which of the following antibody is the first line of defence against inhaled and ingested pathogens?

a) IgM

b) IgA

c) IgG

d) IgE

Answer: b


56. In which of the following places antibody IgA is not present?

a) Vagina

b) Placenta

c) Digestive tract

d) Respiratory tract

Answer: b


57. Which of the following is an Allergy Mediated antibody?

a) IgE

b) IgA

c) IgG

d) IgD

Answer: a


58. Which of the following antibodies are present on the surface of B-lymphocytes?

a) IgA

b) IgE

c) IgD

d) IgM

Answer: c

Cell Mediated Immunity MCQs

59. The full form of CMI is __________

a) cell Medium Immunoglobulin

b) cell-Mediated Immunity

c) cyst Marked Infection

d) cellular Medium Infection

Answer: b


60. Which of the following mediate the CMI?

a) T-lymphocytes

b) Red blood corpuscles

c) White Blood cells

d) B-lymphocytes

Answer: a


61. Which of the following is called as Competent lymphocytes?

a) B-lymphocytes

b) T-lymphocytes

c) C- lymphocytes

d) S-lymphocytes

Answer: b


62. Number of lymphocytes present in a healthy human is ___________

a) 1 trillion

b) 1 million

c) 1 billion

d) 10 trillion

Answer: a


63. What is the life of the effector cells of the immune system?

a) A few weeks

b) A few days

c) A few months

d) A few years

Answer: b


64. Which of the following sets include all the types of T-cells?

a) Killer cells and Helper cells

b) Suppressor and Cytotoxic cells

c) Depressor cells, Helper cells and Memory cells

d) Killer cells, Helper cells, Suppressor cells and Memory cells.

Answer: d


65. Life span of T-cells __________

a) 4-5 hours

b) 4-5 days

c) 4-5 weeks

d) 4-5 years

Answer: d


66. B-cells produce antibodies in response to the instruction received from _________

a) Killer T-cells

b) Suppressor T-cells

c) Memory Cells

d) Helper T-cells

Answer: d


67. How can Organ transplantation rejection be prevented?

a) Immunosuppressant drugs

b) Depressant drugs

c) Interferons

d) New T-cells

Answer: a


68. Which of the following cells of the immune system are responsible for causing pores in the plasma membrane of antigens?

a) Helper T-cells

b) Killer T-cells

c) Suppressor T-cells

d) Memory cells

Answer: b


69. What does T stand for in T-lymphocytes?

a) Tonsils

b) Thymus

c) Tissue

d) Thyroid

Answer: b


70. Helper T-cells can be distinguished from killer T-cells by the presence of _________

a) CD-2 receptor

b) CD-3 receptor

c) CD-8 receptor

d) CD-4 receptor

Answer: d


71. Which of the following cell surfaces do not have Major Histocompatibility complex?

a) Red Blood Corpuscles

b) White Blood Cells

c) Helper T-cells

d) Killer T-cells

Answer: a


72. What is meant by Apoptosis?

a) Accidental Cell Death

b) Programmed Cell death

c) Accidental Cell division

d) Programmed Cell division

Answer: b

Active and Passive Immunity MCQs

73. Who is the Father of Passive immunity?

a) Von Behring

b) Carolus Linnaeus

c) Edward Jenner

d) Louis Pasteur

Answer: a


74. Active immunity is due to _________

a) Killer T-cells

b) Memory cells

c) Helper T-cells

d) Suppressor T-cells

Answer: b


75. Exogenous supply of antibodies provides which of the following types of immunities?

a) Artificial Active Immunity

b) Natural Active Immunity

c) Active immunity

d) Passive Immunity

Answer: d


76. Which of the following is the most purified form of the vaccine?

a) 1st generation

b) 2nd generation

c) 3rd generation

d) 4th generation

Answer: c


77. Which of the following is not a killed form of first-generation vaccines?

a) DPT

b) Influenza vaccine

c) TAB vaccine

d) Salk Vaccine

Answer: b


78. How are modified genes introduced into the host cells for preparing third-generation vaccines?

a) Introduced by DNA injection

b) Introduced by cooling and then icing the cells

c) Introduced by first giving a heat shock and then cooling the cells

d) Introduced by making new pathways for pathogens

Answer: a


79. When preformed antibodies are directly injected into the body, they provide which kind of immunity?

a) Natural Active immunity

b) Artificial Active Immunity

c) Natural Passive immunity

d) Artificial passive immunity

Answer: d


80. Which of the following attacks of diseases is not going to provide any immunity to the person?

a) Common cold

b) Small Pox

c) Measles

d) Mumps

Answer: a


81. IgA and IgG antibodies provide which of the following kinds of immunity to the infant or foetus?

a) Natural Active Immunity

b) Natural Passive Immunity

c) Artificial Active Immunity

d) Artificial Passive Immunity

Answer: b

Vaccination and Immunisation MCQs

82. Who discovered the technique of preparing vaccine from attenuated pathogen and in which year?

a) Edward Jenner, 1796

b) Louis Pasteur, 1879

c) Robert Downey, 1856

d) Von Behring, 1950

Answer: b


83. The term vaccine was introduced by ________

a) Edward Jenner

b) Robert Koch

c) Louis Pasteur

d) Von Behring

Answer: a


84. Jenner prepared the vaccine of smallpox by using _______

a) The attenuated pathogen of smallpox

b) The killed pathogen of smallpox

c) The attenuated pathogen of Cowpox

d) Pathogens from Cowpox pustule

Answer: d


85. Why are the vaccines produced through genetic engineering considered as safe?

a) They have only the coat of pathogen

b) They are attenuated form of a pathogen

c) They have killed form of pathogens

d) They have all the genes of pathogens

Answer: a


86. What is the basic principle of immunisation and vaccination?

a) It is based on the number of B and T lymphocytes

b) It is based on the property of memory of the immune system

c) It is based on antigen-antibody interactions

d) It is based upon the number of white blood cells

Answer: b


87. ATS inoculation soon after injury that brings contact with soiled objects give protection against the possible attack of __________

a) Poliomyelitis

b) AIDS

c) Tetanus

d) Influenza

Answer: c


88. A disease against which vaccination is resorted only during epidemics is ___________

a) Diarrhoea

b) Tuberculosis

c) AIDS

d) Cholera

Answer: d


89. On which of the following discoveries, Von Behring was awarded the noble prize?

a) For discovering passive immunity

b) For discovering active immunity

c) For discovering and making the first true vaccine

d) For discovering methods to protect people from smallpox

Answer: a


90. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Vaccination and Immunisation?

a) Immunisation is the phenomena of increasing specific antibody production

b) Vaccination is the process of inoculation of harmless antigenic material into the healthy person

c) A single vaccination gives adequate immunity and lasts lifelong

d) Immunisation is carried out through vaccination and injection of antiserum

Answer: c

Allergies MCQs

91. Anaphylactic shock is _______

a) Mild local reaction to an allergen

b) Severe local reaction

c) The severe reaction of the whole body

d) The mild reaction of the whole body

Answer: c


92. Hypersensitivity to an allergen is due to _________

a) Food Habits

b) Life style

c) Improper functioning of the immune system

d) Environment

Answer: c


93. The inflammatory response in allergy is due to the release of ________ by mast cells.

a) Antibodies

b) Antigens

c) Mucus

d) Histamine

Answer: d


94. Which of the following usually cannot act as an allergen?

a) Pure Water

b) Pollen

c) Dust

d) Shellfish

Answer: a


95. What is meant by sensitisation of allergen?

a) When an allergen leaves the body

b) The first contact of an allergen

c) The incubation period of an allergen

d) When symptoms of the disease appear

Answer: b


96. Which of the following is not a common manifestation of allergy?

a) Watering of Eyes

b) Oedema

c) Sneezing

d) Anaphylaxis

Answer: d


97. Which of the following diseases is an allergic response?

a) AIDS

b) Hay Fever

c) Yellow Fever

d) Syphilis

Answer: b


98. Which of the following allergies is characterised by circumscribed raised pinkish blisters?

a) Hay Fever

b) Asthma

c) Eczema

d) Urticaria

Answer: d


99. Allergic reactions are countered by the administration of _________

a) Cortisol

b) Insulin

c) Antihistamine

d) Oxytocin

Answer: c


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