Are you looking for NEET Questions On Human Health And Disease for NEET, AIIMS and other medical entrance examinations? If yes, these are some most important multiple choice questions and answers on NCERT Class-12 Biology, Chapter-8 (Human Health and Disease).
Here we composed these 300+ NEET Questions On Human Health And Disease after reading the chapter on Human Health and Disease from the NCERT book on Class 12 Biology. The questions are topics-wise and the students can relate the questions easily to the most important topics of this chapter.
NEET Questions On Human Health And Disease
Autoimmunity MCQs
1. Which of the following is the cause of autoimmune diseases?
a) Immune System begins to attack its cells and tissues
b) Immune System starts producing cells and tissues
c) Immune System fails completely
d) Immune System produces WBCs in a huge number
Answer: a
2. Which of the following is not an autoantigen?
a) RBCs
b) Liver Cells
c) Acetylcholine receptors
d) Brain
Answer: d
3. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disorder?
a) Rheumatoid Arthritis
b) Multiple sclerosis
c) Influenza
d) Chronic Hepatitis
Answer: c
4. In which of the following diseases the autoantigens are β-cells?
a) Myasthenia gravis
b) Insulin-dependent diabetes
c) Multiple sclerosis
d) Chronic anaemia
Answer: b
5. Which of the following is not an immune system disorder?
a) Allergies
b) Immunodeficiency
c) Genetic Disorders
d) Autoimmune Diseases
Answer: c
6. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?
a) Addison’s disease
b) Syphilis
c) Tuberculosis
d) AIDS
Answer: a
7. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Rheumatoid arthritis?
a) It is an autoimmune disorder
b) It occurs only in old people
c) Inflammation of synovial fluid
d) Diagnosed by the presence of rheumatoid factor
Answer: b
8. In Myasthenia gravis, antibodies start attacking the ______________
a) Proprioceptors
b) Chemoreceptors
c) Acetylcholine receptors
d) Cortisol receptors
Answer: c
Immune System in the Body MCQs
9. What is the life span of the memory B-cells of the immune system?
a) A few days
b) A few hours
c) A few years
d) A few years to whole life
Answer: d
10. Which of the following is introduced during smallpox vaccination?
a) Antibodies
b) Antigens
c) Attenuated virus
d) WBCs
Answer: c
11. Formation of a large number of effector cells against a particular antigen is called ______
a) Mass replication
b) Clonal selection
c) Mass selection
d) Pure line selection
Answer: b
12. Which of the following immunoglobulins is also called secretory immunoglobulin?
a) IgG
b) IgA
c) IgM
d) IgE
Answer: b
13. Which of the following is an immunosuppressant drug?
a) Antihistamine
b) Cyclosporin
c) Neomycin
d) Streptokinase
Answer: b
14. Which one of the following people are given the highest priority in transplanting organs to a donor?
a) Identical twin
b) Sibling
c) Parent
d) Unrelated donor
Answer: a
15. What is the full form of SCID?
a) Severe Combined Immunodeficiency
b) Sarcolemma Infected Disease
c) Septic Infectious diseases
d) Seven Convoluted Immunity disorder
Answer: a
16. Which of the following is not a cause of Immunodeficiency diseases?
a) Gene mutation
b) Infection
c) Accident
d) Shortage of water in the body
Answer: d
17. Lymphoid Organs are not responsible for ___________
a) Proliferation of lymphocytes
b) Differentiation of lymphocytes
c) Destruction of lymphocytes
d) Maturation of lymphocytes
Answer: c
18. In which of the following places MALT is not found?
a) Respiratory tract
b) Digestive tract
c) Urogenital tract
d) Eyes
Answer: d
19. MALT constitutes for about _______ percentage of the lymphoid tissue in the human body.
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%
Answer: c
20. Which of the following organs is also called as “Graveyard of RBCs”?
a) Spleen
b) Heart
c) Bone Marrow
d) Liver
Answer: a
21. Which of the following organ is also called as “Throne of Immunity”?
a) Bone Marrow
b) Thymus
c) Brain
d) Heart
Answer: b
AIDS MCQs
22. What is the full form of AIDS?
a) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
b) Assimilated Infectious Death Syndrome
c) Auto Immunity Diseased Syndrome
d) Auto-Immune Disorders
Answer: a
23. AIDS is characterised by which of the following?
a) Reduction in the number of platelets
b) Very less RBC count
c) Reduction in the number of T4-lymphocytes
d) Very High Blood Pressure
Answer: c
24. Through which of the following routes, the transmission of AIDS does not take place?
a) Parenteral Route
b) Sexual Route
c) Transplacental Route
d) Faeco-oral Route
Answer: d
25. Which organisation in India is helping to sensitize people about AIDS?
a) NACO
b) KVIC
c) IARI
d) ICZN
Answer: a
26. How does the virus multiplication take place in the human body?
a) The virus enters into macrophages and forms viral DNA
b) Virus destroys WBCs
c) The virus makes its own DNA and gets killed
d) The virus multiplies in CD4 receptors
Answer: a
27. Why does AIDS patient start suffering from other common infections?
a) The decrease in RBC count
b) Reduction in the number of platelets
c) Low WBC count
d) The decrease in the number of Helper T-lymphocytes
Answer: d
28. Which of the following cells behave as a factory of HIV?
a) RBCs
b) Macrophages
c) WBCs
d) Platelets
Answer: b
29. The genetic material of AIDS virus is _________
a) single-stranded DNA
b) single-stranded RNA
c) double-stranded DNA
d) double-stranded RNA
Answer: b
30. In which year AIDS infection was detected in India?
a) 1981
b) 1972
c) 1986
d) 1982
Answer: c
31. Which of the following glycoproteins on the protein coat of virus helps it in the attachment of the virus to CD4 receptors?
a) GP120
b) GP41
c) GP121
d) GP182
Answer: a
32. AIDS was first reported in ___________
a) Brazil
b) USA
c) Cuba
d) Nigeria
Answer: b
33. How many HIV infected patients are believed to be present in India?
a) 1 million
b) 2.4 million
c) 3.8 million
d) 0.2 million
Answer: b
34. Which of the following is not an opportunistic serious disease contracted in HIV infected patients?
a) Kaposi’s sarcoma
b) Toxoplasmosis
c) Leukoplakia
d) Influenza
Answer: d
35. What is the normal count of Helper T-cells in human beings?
a) 1200/mm3
b) 800/mm3
c) 200/mm3
d) 2000/mm3
Answer: a
36. On which of the following cells, HIV virus attacks?
a) Red Blood Cells
b) Neuroglial cells
c) Platelets
d) Hair follicles
Answer: b
37. Which of the following techniques is not used to diagnose HIV virus?
a) PCR
b) Western Blot
c) ELISA
d) Widal test
Answer: d
38. What is the full form of ARC?
a) Anaemia Related Complex
b) AIDS-Related Complex
c) Anxiety-Related Communication issues
d) Artificially Related Communicable diseases
Answer: b
39. Which of the following drug is used for the treatment of AIDS?
a) Azidothymidine
b) Nevirapine
c) Acetaminophen
d) Alprazolam
Answer: a
40. When is AIDS day celebrated?
a) 1st December
b) 1st November
c) 1st May
d) 1st August
Answer: a
41. Full-form of HIV is _________
a) Human Infecting Virus
b) Haemorrhage Inducing Virus
c) Human Immunodeficiency Virus
d) Hay fever Inducing Virus
Answer: c
42. AIDS virus belongs to which of the following group of viruses?
a) Reovirus
b) Retrovirus
c) Rhinovirus
d) Ribovirus
Answer: b
Causes of Cancer MCQs
43. Which of the following property is not exhibited by a cancerous cell?
a) No contact inhibition
b) Limited life span
c) Abnormal shape and size
d) Uncontrolled division of cells
Answer: b
44. When is World Cancer Day celebrated?
a) 1st December
b) 31st October
c) 4th February
d) 12th August
Answer: c
45. Which of the following is not true regarding neoplasm?
a) Abnormal tissue
b) Caused by abnormal proliferation of cells
c) Cannot spread to other body organs
d) Responsible for the formation of tumour
Answer: c
46. Which of the following is a localised tumour surrounded by connective tissue?
a) Benign tumour
b) Malignant tumour
c) Neoplasm
d) Abnormal cells
Answer: a
47. How does cancer spread from one infected individual to another?
a) By touching
b) By kissing
c) By hugging
d) Cannot spread
Answer: d
48. How do cancerous cells spread from one body organ to another?
a) Through hormones
b) Through water
c) Through Viruses
d) Through blood
Answer: d
49. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding malignant tumour?
a) It is a large mass of abnormal tissue
b) It is encapsulated
c) It invades adjacent tissues
d) It reaches distant sites
Answer: b
50. Which of the following is the most feared property of malignant tumours?
a) Metastasis
b) Contact Inhibition
c) Autolysis
d) Degeneration
Answer: a
51. The agents causing cancer are known as __________
a) Oncogenes
b) Carcinogens
c) Antibodies
d) Cannabinoids
Answer: b
52. Which of the following is not a chemical carcinogen?
a) Coal-tar
b) Soot
c) Asbestos
d) Heat
Answer: d
53. Which of the following genes on activation produces malignant neoplasm?
a) Pleiotropic genes
b) Multiple genes
c) Oncogenes
d) Neonatal genes
Answer: c
54. Which of the following is not a biological agent that causes cancer?
a) Trauma
b) HPV (Human Papilloma Virus)
c) HCV (Hepatitis B and C viruses)
d) Epstein-Bar virus
Answer: a
55. Which of the following given physical carcinogens is non-ionising by nature?
a) Radiations
b) X-Rays
c) Gamma Rays
d) UV rays
Answer: d
Types of Cancer MCQs
56. Which of the following is the most common form of cancer?
a) Carcinoma
b) Sarcoma
c) Melanoma
d) Lymphoma
Answer: a
57. Which of the following cancers is derived from mesodermal tissues?
a) Carcinoma
b) Leukaemia
c) Breast Cancer
d) Sarcoma
Answer: d
58. In which of the following cancers, there is a tremendous increase in the number of WBCs?
a) Leukaemia
b) Sarcoma
c) Melanoma
d) Carcinoma
Answer: a
59. Which of the following cancers does not come under the category of Sarcoma?
a) Lymphoma
b) Adenoma
c) Myelocytic Leukaemia
d) Angiosarcoma
Answer: c
60. Which of the following cancers is commonly known as Bone Cancer?
a) Melanoma
b) Adenoma
c) Lymphoma
d) Osteoma
Answer: d
61. Which of the following chromosomes are involved in myelocytic leukaemia?
a) 7th and 20th
b) 9th and 22nd
c) 1st and 2nd
d) 3rd and 4th
Answer: b
62. The most common form of cancer that affects Indian men is ____________
a) mouth and throat cancer
b) lung cancer
c) pancreatic cancer
d) bone cancer
Answer: a
63. Pituitary Cancer is a type of ___________
a) Carcinoma
b) Leukaemia
c) Lymphoma
d) Adenoma
Answer: d
64. Which of the following is the cancer of Glial cells of CNS?
a) Melanoma
b) Glioma
c) Adenoma
d) Lymphoma
Answer: b
65. Which of the following are the most common forms of cancers in Indian women?
a) Breast and Cervical Cancer
b) Thyroid Cancer
c) Lung Cancer
d) Oral Cancer
Answer: a
66. Which of the following is not a symptom of Lymphoma?
a) Swollen Lymph Nodes
b) Weight Loss
c) Euphoria
d) Fatigue
Answer: c
67. The vagina is a target tissue for which of the following chemical carcinogens?
a) Asbestos
b) Soot
c) Diethylstilboestrol (DES)
d) Cadmium Oxide
Answer: c
Cancer Detection and Diagnosis MCQs
68. What is the full form of MRI?
a) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
b) Motor Radiating Images
c) Menstruation Related Images
d) Mobile Resonance Imaging
Answer: a
69. Which of the following is the most accurate and safest technique to diagnose cancer?
a) Biopsy
b) CT scan
c) MRI
d) Radiography
Answer: c
70. Cancer detection is not based on which of the following tests or studies?
a) Biopsy
b) Widal test
c) Histopathological studies
d) Bone Marrow tests
Answer: b
71. Which of the following is the correct option regarding biopsy?
a) Normal tissues of the infected individuals are studied
b) Thick sections of living tissues are studied under the microscope
c) Histopathological studies are done by an ophthalmologist
d) Suspected tissues are studied under the microscope
Answer: d
72. What is the full form of CT?
a) Computed Topography
b) Computed Tomography
c) Cumulative Tissue
d) Cumulative Technique
Answer: a
73. Which of the following techniques is commonly used to detect cancer in cervix and uterus?
a) Biopsy
b) Endoscopy
c) Radiography
d) PCR
Answer: a
74. What is the use of monoclonal antibodies?
a) They are used to detect cancerous cells
b) They are used to increase the blood platelets count
c) They are used to treat AIDS
d) They are used to give a three-dimensional image of the internal organs of the body
Answer: a
75. Which of the following is not a common approach to treat cancer?
a) Surgery
b) Radiotherapy with ionising radiations
c) Immunotherapy
d) Chemotherapy
Answer: b
76. Which of the following radiations are used in radiotherapy?
a) Alpha rays
b) Beta rays
c) Gamma rays
d) X-rays
Answer: c
77. When are the biological response modifiers used to treat cancer?
a) When the immune system responds to cancerous cells
b) When the immune system fails to detect the cancerous cells
c) When the immune system is hyperactive
d) When the immune system destroys the cancerous cells
Answer: a
78. What are anticarcinogens?
a) Substances used to detect cancer
b) Substances used to kill cancerous cells
c) Substances used to prevent the action of carcinogens
d) Substances used to slow down the immune system
Answer: c
79. Which of the following is not a symptom of cancer?
a) Unexplained loss of weight
b) A lump or hard swelling which does not heal
c) Baldness
d) Loss of blood through a natural orifice
Answer: c
Drugs and Alcohol Abuse MCQs
80. What is Drug Addiction?
a) Addiction to Food
b) Dependence on Drugs
c) Taking medicines with valid medical prescriptions
d) Not eating a balanced diet
Answer: b
81. In which age group, Drug addiction is a major problem?
a) Childhood
b) Adolescence
c) Adulthood
d) Old Age
Answer: b
82. When is International Day Against Drug Abuse celebrated?
a) 26th June
b) 12th August
c) 14th September
d) 1st December
Answer: a
83. Which of the following drugs is not used commonly by the youth?
a) Opioids
b) Cannabinoids
c) Coca Alkaloids
d) Orphan Drug
Answer: d
84. Which of the following is not a symptom of mental illness?
a) Insomnia
b) Depression
c) Positive attitude
d) Delusions and hallucinations
Answer: c
85. Which of the following is not a common problem of Adolescence?
a) Spirituality
b) Acne
c) Post-traumatic Stress Disorder
d) Mood Swings
Answer: a
86. What is Hypochondria?
a) Mental Disorder
b) Physical Disorder
c) Physiological Disorder
d) Social Disorder
Answer: a
87. What are Obsessive-Compulsive Disorders?
a) Mental Disorders
b) Psychological Disorders
c) Personality Disorder
d) Mental Behaviour
Answer: b
88. Which of the following is not a common symptom of Schizophrenia?
a) Auditory hallucinations
b) Laughing and Crying at inappropriate occasions
c) Progressive growth of personality
d) The shallowness of emotional life
Answer: c
89. What is Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)?
a) Personality Disorder
b) Social Disorder
c) Physiological Disorder
d) Mental Wellbeing
Answer: a
90. Which of the following is not a symptom of BPD?
a) Cognitive instability
b) Behavioural dysregulation
c) Emotional instability
d) Euphoria
Answer: d
91. Which of the following was a major reason for the development of Drugs?
a) For clinical purposes
b) To experience hallucinations
c) Adventure
d) For curiosity
Answer: a
92. Which of the following is not a common reason for Drug Abuse or Drug Dependence?
a) Peer Pressure
b) Adventure
c) A feeling of Excitement and Euphoria
d) For death
Answer: d
93. Which of the following is not a psychotropic drug?
a) Sedative
b) Tranquilizer
c) Hallucinogens
d) Stimulants
Answer: c
94. Which of the following psychotropic drugs have the strongest physical dependence?
a) Tranquillizers
b) Sedatives
c) Narcotic Opioids
d) Stimulants
Answer: c
95. Which of the following is not a symptom of Drug Addiction?
a) Loss of Blood
b) Unpredictive mood changes
c) Unprovoked violence
d) Anxiety and Depression
Answer: a
96. Which of the following is not an example of a sedative?
a) Barbiturates
b) Furazepam
c) Echinamate
d) Benzodiazepines
Answer: d
97. Barbiturates are the derivatives of __________
a) Ascorbic acid
b) Barbituric acid
c) Citric acid
d) Diazonium chloride
Answer: b
98. Which of the following drugs is used in sleeping pills?
a) Morphine
b) Benzodiazepines
c) Amphetamines
d) Barbiturates
Answer: d
99. Which of the following drugs are used as Antidepressants?
a) Stimulants
b) Tranquilisers
c) Amphetamines
d) Morphine
Answer: b
100. Which of the following is not an example of Benzodiazepines?
a) Furazepam
b) Diazepam
c) Lorazepam
d) Nitrazepam
Answer: a
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